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Causality seems to play an important role in physics. There also seems to be a close parallel between "$P$ causes $Q$" and "if $P$ then $Q$." Mathematical logic studies logical inference; has there been any formal mathematical study of causal inference?

Timothy Chow
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I am converting my comments into an answer.

Setting aside the alleged parallel between causation and inference for a moment, there has indeed been some mathematical investigation of cause and effect. The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy article on causal models is a good starting point for reading about this topic. One of the theories mentioned there has been described in some detail in semi-popular terms in The Book of Why by Judea Pearl and Dana Mackenzie. This theory lies more in the domain of statistics than mathematics proper, and tries to address that perennial problem that statistical correlations do not in themselves prove causation. Pearl has also written a more technical monograph, Causality: Models, Reasoning, and Inference.

Returning to the word "inference," let us note there are several interpretations of what that word means. In mathematics, the flavors that most commonly arise are the material conditional $P \Rightarrow Q$, which is equivalent to $(\neg P) \vee Q$, and the provability relation $T \vdash \phi$. Though both of these relations might superficially resemble the relation "$P$ causes $Q$," most people who have thought about the analogy have concluded that causality more closely resembles a different kind of conditional statement, namely a counterfactual conditional. Roughly speaking, "$P$ caused $Q$" seems akin to the statement, "If $P$ had not occurred then $Q$ would not have occurred." A counterfactual conditional is a very different beast from the material conditional. In everyday speech, the material conditional rarely comes up, except when someone half-jokingly says something like, "If Chris is a good cook then I'm the king of England!" Conditionals in everyday speech are much more likely to be counterfactual, and nowadays, counterfactuals are usually analyzed using possible world semantics and modal logic. Again the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy has a good article on David Lewis's attempt to analyze causation in terms of counterfactuals. Though the mathematics of modal logic is rigorous, the question of whether Lewis has successfully used it to analyze causality is a philosophical one, and is controversial.

Finally, although you might think that causality plays an essential role in modern physics, the truth is more subtle. The fundamental equations of physics make no explicit mention of causality, and are in fact time-reversible. Intuitively, causality involves an arrow of time, which is a notoriously difficult concept to explain in terms of modern physics. Causality does get mentioned sometimes in physics, e.g., in special relativity, but not in a way that suggests a direct connection with provability or the material conditional.

To summarize, while your intuition might suggest that mathematical logic should be intimately related to causality, closer inspection reveals that the relationship is not as tight as you might have expected.

Timothy Chow
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    Thank you for your answer. Maybe, the study of time in physics is not clear, therefore the study of causality is so controversial. xiomatization of causality has to have axiomatization of time or entropy ahead. having axiomatized time or entropy ahead, I think that cause and effect is able to be expressed as inference(computability) or proposition($P\vee Q$ and$\neg P \vee \neg Q$). – XL _At_Here_There Apr 27 '22 at 00:49
  • @XL_At_Here_There I very much doubt that matters are so simple. For example, it is very common for $P\Rightarrow Q$ and $Q\Rightarrow R$ and $R\Rightarrow P$ to all hold simultaneously, but to say that $P$ causes $Q$ and $Q$ causes $R$ and $R$ causes $P$ violates our intuition about causality. – Timothy Chow Apr 27 '22 at 01:05
  • Axiomatization of time or entropy is not simple, and your example is not hard to explain, if we incorporate the time which is an order and linked to the material world. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 27 '22 at 01:37
  • sorry for mistakes, $P \vee Q$ and $\neg P \vee \neg Q$ have to be $P \rightarrow Q$ and $\neg P \rightarrow \neg Q$ – XL _At_Here_There Apr 27 '22 at 13:56
  • A definition for causality: causality is defined as, $P\rightarrow Q$ or $\neg P\rightarrow \neg Q$ where $P$ happens before $Q$ ($P \twoheadrightarrow Q$), and $P \twoheadrightarrow Q$ is invariant under every special relativistic transformation. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 28 '22 at 03:52
  • @XL_At_Here_There What are $P$ and $Q$? Can I take $P$ to be "the function $f\colon\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ is differentiable" and $Q$ to be "the function $f\colon\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ is continuous"? Then $P\to Q$, but how can I tell whether $P$ happens before $Q$ and how can I test for invariance under relativistic transformations? – Timothy Chow Apr 29 '22 at 16:35
  • P and Q are just proposition that describe events, P is before O(may including at same time) and invariance under relativistic transformation are just physics fact. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 30 '22 at 02:53
  • @XL_At_Here_There In that case, I don't see why you think there is a close connection between mathematical inference, which deals with non-physical timeless inferences such as "if $f$ is differentiable then $f$ is continuous," and causality, which deals with relationships between temporal physical facts. – Timothy Chow Apr 30 '22 at 02:57
  • What do you think about mathematical inferences or proof? Do you think there are any mathematical inferences or functions or any mathematical ideas involved in time? I think there is no place for time in math. So we have to introduce time or an order to define causality. Before is an order. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 30 '22 at 04:01
  • @XL_At_Here_There If we accept that there is no place for time in math but time is essential for causality, then that answers your initial question of "why math does not care about cause or effect or causality." Contrary to what you initially asserted, cause and effect and causality are not very similar to inference. – Timothy Chow Apr 30 '22 at 12:08
  • But, they are similar, but because there is no place for time in math, so the similarity is not revealed. So I hope we can find an approach to do it. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 30 '22 at 23:27