Causality seems to play an important role in physics. There also seems to be a close parallel between "$P$ causes $Q$" and "if $P$ then $Q$." Mathematical logic studies logical inference; has there been any formal mathematical study of causal inference?
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5Someone more informed can say more, but I believe there have been attempts to axiomatize the rules of causality. Possibly this is considered philosophy, and not math. – Sam Hopkins Apr 24 '22 at 13:05
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@SamHopkins, possibly, it is closely related to physics. But I think inference and cause -effect are similar to each other. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 24 '22 at 14:10
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8The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy article on causal models is a good place to start reading about this topic. By the way, note that causality in modern physics is a much more subtle topic than you might think at first. So the superficial similarity between logical inference and causality is not as straightforward as it might seem at first glance. – Timothy Chow Apr 24 '22 at 21:52
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6For a somewhat more philosophical discussion of the relationship between causality and if/then conditionals, see the article on counterfactual theories of causation. David Lewis tried to analyze causality in terms of logical conditionals, but his proposal was controversial, and in any case, he was using conditionals based on possible world semantics (modal logic) rather than the material conditional of classical mathematical logic. – Timothy Chow Apr 24 '22 at 21:59
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3I've tried to rewrite the question to be more suitable for MO. If it is reopened, I plan to expand my comments above into an answer. – Timothy Chow Apr 25 '22 at 14:36
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3Related: https://mathoverflow.net/q/28224/30186 – Wojowu Apr 25 '22 at 15:26
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1Drew Moshier, who seems not to be on MO, proposed using the Scott topology for the time-like coordinate to account for causality in a rather simple way. – Paul Taylor Apr 25 '22 at 21:40
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@TimothyChow, it is reopen now, and I can not understand why people on the site vote close the post. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 26 '22 at 08:36
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1@XL_At_Here_There Your original question stated, as if it were an obvious fact, that causality is very similar to inference. But this is not at all an obvious fact. Your question was, "Why does math not care..." which is not a clear question. What does it mean to care? This does not appear to be a research-level question in mathematics. – Timothy Chow Apr 26 '22 at 13:00
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2Interestingly, some physicists have abandoned causality. See "Quantum Mischief Rewrites the Laws of Cause and Effect" in Quanta Magazine. – Joseph O'Rourke Apr 26 '22 at 22:40
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@JosephO'Rourke, I do not think those physicists are correct. collapse of quantum state and time are not clear ideas, it is too early to say that causality has to be abandoned. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 27 '22 at 00:29
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@TimothyChow, maybe I have not clearly expressed my intuition. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 27 '22 at 00:30
1 Answers
I am converting my comments into an answer.
Setting aside the alleged parallel between causation and inference for a moment, there has indeed been some mathematical investigation of cause and effect. The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy article on causal models is a good starting point for reading about this topic. One of the theories mentioned there has been described in some detail in semi-popular terms in The Book of Why by Judea Pearl and Dana Mackenzie. This theory lies more in the domain of statistics than mathematics proper, and tries to address that perennial problem that statistical correlations do not in themselves prove causation. Pearl has also written a more technical monograph, Causality: Models, Reasoning, and Inference.
Returning to the word "inference," let us note there are several interpretations of what that word means. In mathematics, the flavors that most commonly arise are the material conditional $P \Rightarrow Q$, which is equivalent to $(\neg P) \vee Q$, and the provability relation $T \vdash \phi$. Though both of these relations might superficially resemble the relation "$P$ causes $Q$," most people who have thought about the analogy have concluded that causality more closely resembles a different kind of conditional statement, namely a counterfactual conditional. Roughly speaking, "$P$ caused $Q$" seems akin to the statement, "If $P$ had not occurred then $Q$ would not have occurred." A counterfactual conditional is a very different beast from the material conditional. In everyday speech, the material conditional rarely comes up, except when someone half-jokingly says something like, "If Chris is a good cook then I'm the king of England!" Conditionals in everyday speech are much more likely to be counterfactual, and nowadays, counterfactuals are usually analyzed using possible world semantics and modal logic. Again the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy has a good article on David Lewis's attempt to analyze causation in terms of counterfactuals. Though the mathematics of modal logic is rigorous, the question of whether Lewis has successfully used it to analyze causality is a philosophical one, and is controversial.
Finally, although you might think that causality plays an essential role in modern physics, the truth is more subtle. The fundamental equations of physics make no explicit mention of causality, and are in fact time-reversible. Intuitively, causality involves an arrow of time, which is a notoriously difficult concept to explain in terms of modern physics. Causality does get mentioned sometimes in physics, e.g., in special relativity, but not in a way that suggests a direct connection with provability or the material conditional.
To summarize, while your intuition might suggest that mathematical logic should be intimately related to causality, closer inspection reveals that the relationship is not as tight as you might have expected.

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1Thank you for your answer. Maybe, the study of time in physics is not clear, therefore the study of causality is so controversial. xiomatization of causality has to have axiomatization of time or entropy ahead. having axiomatized time or entropy ahead, I think that cause and effect is able to be expressed as inference(computability) or proposition($P\vee Q$ and$\neg P \vee \neg Q$). – XL _At_Here_There Apr 27 '22 at 00:49
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@XL_At_Here_There I very much doubt that matters are so simple. For example, it is very common for $P\Rightarrow Q$ and $Q\Rightarrow R$ and $R\Rightarrow P$ to all hold simultaneously, but to say that $P$ causes $Q$ and $Q$ causes $R$ and $R$ causes $P$ violates our intuition about causality. – Timothy Chow Apr 27 '22 at 01:05
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Axiomatization of time or entropy is not simple, and your example is not hard to explain, if we incorporate the time which is an order and linked to the material world. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 27 '22 at 01:37
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sorry for mistakes, $P \vee Q$ and $\neg P \vee \neg Q$ have to be $P \rightarrow Q$ and $\neg P \rightarrow \neg Q$ – XL _At_Here_There Apr 27 '22 at 13:56
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A definition for causality: causality is defined as, $P\rightarrow Q$ or $\neg P\rightarrow \neg Q$ where $P$ happens before $Q$ ($P \twoheadrightarrow Q$), and $P \twoheadrightarrow Q$ is invariant under every special relativistic transformation. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 28 '22 at 03:52
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@XL_At_Here_There What are $P$ and $Q$? Can I take $P$ to be "the function $f\colon\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ is differentiable" and $Q$ to be "the function $f\colon\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ is continuous"? Then $P\to Q$, but how can I tell whether $P$ happens before $Q$ and how can I test for invariance under relativistic transformations? – Timothy Chow Apr 29 '22 at 16:35
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P and Q are just proposition that describe events, P is before O(may including at same time) and invariance under relativistic transformation are just physics fact. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 30 '22 at 02:53
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@XL_At_Here_There In that case, I don't see why you think there is a close connection between mathematical inference, which deals with non-physical timeless inferences such as "if $f$ is differentiable then $f$ is continuous," and causality, which deals with relationships between temporal physical facts. – Timothy Chow Apr 30 '22 at 02:57
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What do you think about mathematical inferences or proof? Do you think there are any mathematical inferences or functions or any mathematical ideas involved in time? I think there is no place for time in math. So we have to introduce time or an order to define causality. Before is an order. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 30 '22 at 04:01
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@XL_At_Here_There If we accept that there is no place for time in math but time is essential for causality, then that answers your initial question of "why math does not care about cause or effect or causality." Contrary to what you initially asserted, cause and effect and causality are not very similar to inference. – Timothy Chow Apr 30 '22 at 12:08
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But, they are similar, but because there is no place for time in math, so the similarity is not revealed. So I hope we can find an approach to do it. – XL _At_Here_There Apr 30 '22 at 23:27