86

Maxwell's equations specify two vector and two scalar (differential) equations. That implies 8 components in the equations. But between vector fields $\vec{E}=(E_x,E_y,E_z)$ and $\vec{B}=(B_x,B_y,B_z)$, there are only 6 unknowns. So we have 8 equations for 6 unknowns. Why isn't this a problem?

As far as I know, the answer is basically because the equations aren't actually independent but I've never found a clear explanation. Perhaps the right direction is in this article on arXiv.

Apologies if this is a repost. I found some discussions on PhysicsForums but no similar question here.

Qmechanic
  • 201,751
Warrick
  • 9,625

7 Answers7

63

It isn't a problem because two of the eight equations are constraints and they're not quite independent from the remaining six.

The constraint equations are the scalar ones, $$ {\rm div}\,\,\vec D = \rho, \qquad {\rm div}\,\,\vec B = 0$$ Imagine $\vec D=\epsilon_0\vec E$ and $\vec B=\mu_0\vec H$ everywhere for the sake of simplicity.

If these equations are satisfied in the initial state, they will immediately be satisfied at all times. That's because the time derivatives of these non-dynamical equations ("non-dynamical" means that they're not designed to determine time derivatives of fields themselves; they don't really contain any time derivatives) may be calculated from the remaining 6 equations. Just apply ${\rm div}$ on the remaining 6 component equations, $$ {\rm curl}\,\, \vec E+ \frac{\partial\vec B}{\partial t} = 0, \qquad {\rm curl}\,\, \vec H- \frac{\partial\vec D}{\partial t} = \vec j. $$ When you apply ${\rm div}$, the curl terms disappear because ${\rm div}\,\,{\rm curl} \,\,\vec V\equiv 0$ is an identity and you get $$\frac{\partial({\rm div}\,\,\vec B)}{\partial t} =0,\qquad \frac{\partial({\rm div}\,\,\vec D)}{\partial t} =-{\rm div}\,\,\vec j. $$ The first equation implies that ${\rm div}\,\,\vec B$ remains zero if it were zero in the initial state. The second equation may be rewritten using the continuity equation for $\vec j$, $$ \frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t}+{\rm div}\,\,\vec j = 0$$ (i.e. we are assuming this holds for the sources) to get $$ \frac{\partial ({\rm div}\,\,\vec D-\rho)}{\partial t} = 0 $$ so ${\rm div}\,\,\vec D-\rho$ also remains zero at all times if it is zero in the initial state.

Let me mention that among the 6+2 component Maxwell's equations, 4 of them, those involving $\vec E,\vec B$, may be solved by writing $\vec E,\vec B$ in terms of four components $\Phi,\vec A$. In this language, we are left with the remaining 4 Maxwell's equations only. However, only 3 of them are really independent at each time, as shown above. That's also OK because the four components of $\Phi,\vec A$ are not quite determined: one of these components (or one function) may be changed by the 1-parameter $U(1)$ gauge invariance.

Luboš Motl
  • 179,018
  • What Lubos is saying is that scalar equations can be considered as consequences of vector equations, conservation of charges and initial conditions. For instance, $div B = 0$ is the consequence of conservation of magnetic charge and lack of magnetic charges at the initial time, since $div B = const$ is the consequence of $curl E = -\frac{\partial B}{\partial t}$, and $divB=0$ at the initial time. – Murod Abdukhakimov Jan 27 '12 at 10:24
  • 1
    Lubosh, $\vec{E},\vec{B}$ are expressed via 6 time and space derivatives of $\phi$ and $\vec{A}$; that is why there is an ambiguity in potentials. – Vladimir Kalitvianski Jan 27 '12 at 18:48
  • 1
    Dear Vladimir, I have answered your question in detail. Again. There's a 1-parameter ambiguity in the 4 potentials - the U(1) gauge invariance - because locally in spacetime, the 4 potentials are only constrained by 3 equations, curl H = $j+\partial D / \partial t$. The fourth equation with currents, ${\rm div},, D=\rho$, isn't independent: its time derivative follows from the previous three. The remaining 3+1 equations for $B,E$ are satisfied automatically if $B,E$ are expressed in terms of the 4 potentials, they're Bianchi identities. – Luboš Motl Jan 27 '12 at 18:54
  • Of course, the way we introduce potentials is not arbitrary, but specific to the Maxwell equations. Any specification is a constraint in comparison with arbitrariness. Now tell me, how many independent electric and magnetic field components are there in electro-magneto-statics? – Vladimir Kalitvianski Jan 27 '12 at 19:33
  • Dear @Vladimir, at one moment, e.g. in the initial state, $\vec E,\vec B$ at each point are independent - so 6 components per point - but they're constrained by ${\rm div},,\vec D=\rho$ and ${\rm div},,\vec B=0$, respectively. So it's effectively four independent components per point. Again, static fields are not the same problem as the dynamical ones, the counting is different for generic points away from the initial state. – Luboš Motl Jan 28 '12 at 06:16
  • @Lubosh: you say almost correct things, but look, $\rm div \vec{D}=\rho$ is not a constraint to the vector $\vec{D}$ components. For example, two polynomials $P_1=a+bx$ and $P_2=c+bx$ are linearly independent, but their derivatives are equal. A constraint to the components looks like $\vec{a}\vec{D}=1$ or so. – Vladimir Kalitvianski Jan 28 '12 at 10:39
  • 1
    Dear @Vladimir, ${\rm div},\vec D=\rho$ is a constraint for $\vec D$, surely in the technical sense. It is not a purely algebraic constraint; if it were, then it would be solvable and one could just erase some components of $\vec D$ immediately. Instead, it contains spatial derivatives. But this difference only allows the overall $\vec D$ in space to move by constant: independent of space. At individual points of the initial slice, the presence of derivatives is irrelevant for the counting and there's 1 constraint per point (except for one point in space) just like if it were an algebraic one – Luboš Motl Jan 31 '12 at 07:16
  • @LubošMotl Thanks for a clear and elaborate answer. As far as I understand, this approach uses the continuity equation for $\vec{j}$ as an additional axiom to dynamical Maxwell's equation. If I am correct then can you please elaborate on why such an additional axiom is valid to take for granted. I am confused as to whether it is an additional axiom or just a definition. Without using the continuity equation, as you have shown, we would get $\partial_t(\nabla\cdot\vec{D})=-\nabla\cdot\vec{j}$ but not $\partial_t(\nabla\cdot\vec{D}-\rho)=0$. Thanks for your time! –  Oct 07 '17 at 14:16
  • The continuity equation for rho and j follows from all the Maxwell's equations - including those without time derivatives. Equivalently, if you try to find E,B that solve Maxwell's equations for rho,j that don't obey the continuity equation, there won't be any solutions at all. You could find solutions if rho,j violated the continuity equation and you dropped the time-independent Maxwell equations. But this system of equations, assumptions wouldn't be Lorentz-invariant so it's not terribly interesting. – Luboš Motl Oct 11 '17 at 15:09
  • 2
    @Lubos Motl-Doesn't the continuity equation $ \frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t}+{\rm div}\vec j =0$ follows from the previous formula $\frac{\partial({\rm div},,\vec D)}{\partial t} =-{\rm div}\vec j$, when we put ${\rm div}\vec D =\rho$ in this formula? I feel some circularity here.What use is it to write $\frac{\partial ({\rm div}\vec D-\rho)}{\partial t}=0$ when this comes from two equal formulas? Are there cases where ${\rm div}\vec D-\rho$ is not equal to zero? – Deschele Schilder Nov 18 '18 at 20:02
  • Yes, the implication you described holds but there is nothing circular about it. In physics, we only consider configurations where all Maxwell's equations hold, including div D = rho. You could remove this equation, but the other three Maxwell's equations would still imply that (div D - rho) is independent of time, but otherwise any function of x,y,z. It wouldn't be a terribly interesting system of equations to allow nonzero functions of x,y,z, and the theory wouldn't be Lorentz-invariant. – Luboš Motl Nov 21 '18 at 13:47
  • The point is that Maxwell's equations aren't quite independent from each other - three of them may be differentiated and combined to derive the time derivative of the fourth one. But it's only the system in which all this seemingly (by counting conditions only) "overcomplete" system is imposed is interesting. – Luboš Motl Nov 21 '18 at 13:49
27

I) Let us just for fun generalize OP's question to $n$ spacetime dimensions, and check how the counting of eqs. and degrees of freedom (d.o.f.) work out in this general setting. We shall use Lubos Motl's answer as a template for this part. Also we shall use a special relativistic $(-,+,\ldots,+)$ notation with $c=1$, where $\mu,\nu\in\{0,\ldots,n-1\}$ denote spacetime indices, while $i,j \in\{1,\ldots,n-1\}$ denote spatial indices. Maxwell eqs. are the following.

  1. Source-free Bianchi identities: $${\rm d}F~=~0 \qquad\qquad \Leftrightarrow \qquad\qquad \sum_{\rm cycl.~\mu,\nu,\lambda} d_{\lambda} F_{\mu\nu} ~=~0, \qquad\qquad F~:=~\frac{1}{2} F_{\mu\nu}~ {\rm d}x^{\mu} \wedge {\rm d}x^{\nu}.$$ Here $$\left(\begin{array}{c} n \cr 3\end{array}\right) {\rm~Bianchi~identities} ~=~ \left(\begin{array}{c} n-1 \cr 3\end{array}\right) {\rm~constraints}~+~ \left(\begin{array}{c} n-1 \cr 2\end{array}\right) {\rm~dynamical~eqs.} $$ $$~=~ ({\rm No~magnetic~monopole~eqs.})~+~ ({\rm Faraday's~law}). $$

  2. Maxwell eqs. with source terms: $$ d_{\mu}F^{\mu\nu}~=~-j^{\nu} .$$ Here $$n {\rm~source~eqs.}~=~1 {\rm~constraint} ~+~ (n-1) {\rm~dynamical~eqs.}$$ $$~=~({\rm Gauss'~law}) ~+~ ({\rm Ampere's~law~with~displacement~term}).$$

We have used the terminology that a dynamical eq. contains time derivatives, while a constraint does not. So the number of dynamical eqs. is

$$ \left(\begin{array}{c} n-1 \cr 2\end{array}\right)~+~(n-1)~=~ \left(\begin{array}{c} n \cr 2\end{array}\right),$$

which precisely matches

$${\rm the~number~} \left(\begin{array}{c} n \cr 2\end{array}\right) {\rm~of~} F_{\mu\nu} {\rm~fields}$$ $$~=~\left(\begin{array}{c} n-1 \cr 2\end{array}\right){~\rm magnetic~fields~} F_{ij} ~+~(n-1) {\rm~electric~fields~}F_{i0} .$$

Maxwell eqs. with source terms imply the continuity eq.

$$ d_{\nu}j^{\nu} ~=~-d_{\nu}d_{\mu}F^{\mu\nu}~=~0,\qquad\qquad F^{\mu\nu}~=~-F^{\nu\mu},$$

so one must demand that the background sources $j^{\nu}$ obey the continuity eq.

For consistency, the time derivative of each of the constraints should vanish. In the case of the no-magnetic-monopole-eqs., this follows from Faraday's law. In the case of Gauss' law, this follows from the modified Ampere's law and the continuity eq.

II) The previous section (I) made the counting in terms of the $\left(\begin{array}{c} n \cr 2\end{array}\right)$ field strengths $F_{\mu\nu}$. In terms of the $n$ gauge potentials $A_{\mu}$, the counting goes as follows. The Bianchi identities are now trivially satisfied,

$$F~=~{\rm d}A\qquad\qquad A~:=~A_{\mu}~ {\rm d}x^{\mu}. $$

There are still the $n$ Maxwell eqs. with source terms

$$ (\Box\delta^{\mu}_{\nu}-d^{\mu}d_{\nu})A^{\nu}~=~-j^{\mu} , \qquad\qquad \Box~:=~d_{\mu}d^{\mu}. $$

There is a single gauge d.o.f. because of gauge symmetry $A \to A + {\rm d}\Lambda$ and $F \to F$. If one gauge-fixes using the Lorenz gauge condition

$$d_{\mu}A^{\mu}~=~0, $$

the Maxwell eqs. become $n$ decoupled wave equations

$$ \Box A^{\mu}(x)~=~-j^{\mu}(x). $$

By a spatial Fourier transformation, these become decoupled linear second-order ODEs with constant coefficients,

$$ (d^2_t+\vec{k}^2) \hat{A}^{\mu}(t;\vec{k})~=~\hat{j}^{\mu}(t;\vec{k}) , $$

which, starting from some initial time $t_0$, may be solved for all times $t$, cf. OP's question. [One should check that the solution

$$\hat{A}^{\mu}(t;\vec{k}) ~=~\int {\rm d} t^{\prime} ~G(t-t^{\prime};\vec{k})~\hat{j}^{\mu}(t^{\prime};\vec{k}), \qquad\qquad (d^2_t+\vec{k}^2)G(t-t^{\prime};\vec{k})~=~\delta(t-t^{\prime}),$$

satisfies the Lorenz gauge condition. This follows from the continuity eq.]

III) It is interesting to derive the complete solution $\tilde{A}^{\mu}(k)$ in $k^{\nu}$-momentum space without gauge-fixing. The Fourier-transformed Maxwell eqs. read

$$M^{\mu}{}_{\nu}~\tilde{A}^{\nu}(k)~=~\tilde{j}^{\mu}(k), \qquad\qquad M^{\mu}{}_{\nu}~:=~k^2\delta^{\mu}_{\nu} -k^{\mu}k_{\nu}. $$

To proceed one must analyze the matrix $M^{\mu}{}_{\nu}$ for fixed $k^{\lambda}$. There are three cases.

  1. Constant mode $k^{\mu}=0$. Then the matrix $M^{\mu}{}_{\nu}=0$ vanishes identically. Maxwell eqs. are only possible to satisfy if $\tilde{j}^{\mu}(k=0)=0$ is zero. The gauge potential $\tilde{A}_{\mu}(k=0)$ is not restricted at all by Maxwell eqs., i.e., there is a full $n$-parameter solution.

  2. Massive case $k^2\neq 0$. The matrix $M^{\mu}{}_{\nu}$ is diagonalizable with eigenvalue $k^2$ (with multiplicity $n-1$), and eigenvalue $0$ (with multiplicity $1$). The latter corresponds to a pure gauge mode $\tilde{A}^{\mu}~\propto~k^{\mu}$. The complete solution is a $1$-parameter solution of the form $$\tilde{A}^{\mu}(k) ~=~\frac{\tilde{j}^{\mu}(k)}{k^2}~+~ik^{\mu}\tilde{\Lambda}(k).$$ Apart from the source term, this is pure gauge.

  3. Massless case $k^2=0$ and $k^{\mu}\neq 0$. The matrix $M^{\mu}{}_{\nu}$ is not diagonalizable. There is only eigenvalue $0$ (with multiplicity $n-1$). Maxwell eqs. are only possible to satisfy if the source $\tilde{j}^{\mu}(k)=\tilde{f}(k)k^{\mu}$ is proportional to $k^{\mu}$ with some proportionality factor $\tilde{f}(k)$. In that case Maxwell eqs. become $$ -k_{\mu}\tilde{A}^{\mu}(k)~=~\tilde{f}(k). $$ Let us introduce an $\eta$-dual vector$^1$ $$k^{\mu}_{\eta}~:=~(-k^0,\vec{k})\qquad {\rm for}\qquad k^{\mu}~=~(k^0,\vec{k}).$$ Note that $$k_{\mu}~k^{\mu}_{\eta}~=~(k^0)^2+\vec{k}^2$$ is just the Euclidean distance square in $k^{\mu}$-momentum space. The complete solution is an $(n-1)$-parameter solution of the form $$\tilde{A}^{\mu}(k) ~=~-\frac{k^{\mu}_{\eta}}{k_{\nu}~k^{\nu}_{\eta}}\tilde{f}(k) ~+~ik^{\mu}\tilde{\Lambda}(k)~+~\tilde{A}^{\mu}_{T}(k).$$ The term proportional to $k_{\mu}$ is pure gauge. Here $\tilde{A}^{\mu}_{T}(k)$ denote $n-2$ transversal modes, $$k_{\mu}~\tilde{A}^{\mu}_{T}(k)~=~0, \qquad\qquad k_{\mu}^{\eta}~\tilde{A}^{\mu}_{T}(k)~=~0. $$ The $n-2$ transversal modes $\tilde{A}^{\mu}_{T}$ are the only propagating physical d.o.f. (electromagnetic waves, photon field).

--

$^1$ Longitudinal and timelike polarizations are in the massless case proportional to $k^{\mu}\pm k^{\mu}_{\eta}$, respectively.

Qmechanic
  • 201,751
  • Why do the transversal modes satisfy $k_{\mu}^{\eta}~\tilde{A}^{\mu}{T}(k)~=~0$? Maxwell equs. demand $k{\mu}~\tilde{A}^{\mu}_{T}(k)~=~0$. Where does this extra constraint come from? – image357 Jan 13 '17 at 17:06
  • It may be viewed as part of the definition of what transversal means. – Qmechanic Jan 13 '17 at 17:10
  • But there is no actual constraint that tells me that they have to be transversal? 2. Also: What is the argument for $k^2 = 0$ if not the Lorenz-gauge Maxwell equs. $\Box A^\mu = 0$?
  • – image357 Jan 13 '17 at 17:12
  • No, there is not. 2. I assume you are referring to Section III: The massless case $k^2=0$ is one possibility. There's also a massive case $k^2\neq 0$.
  • – Qmechanic Jan 13 '17 at 17:21