I am trying to understand the Hermiticity of the (massless) Dirac operator in both (flat) Minkowski space and Euclidean space.
Let us define the Dirac operator as $D\!\!\!/=\gamma^\mu D_\mu$, where $D_\mu = \partial_\mu-igA_\mu$, where in general $A_\mu$ is a non-Abelian gauge field. For completeness, they us assume the gauge fields are members of SU(2), and we are working in the Weyl representation for $\gamma$'s).
I have read in a number of sources on Lattice QCD that in Euclidean space $D\!\!\!/^\dagger =-D\!\!\!/$ , however I wish to show this.
Generally $D\!\!\!/=\gamma^0(\partial_0-igA_0)+\gamma^i (\partial_i-igA_i)$.
Then noting that $A_\mu^\dagger=A_\mu$, $\gamma_\mu^\dagger=\gamma_\mu$:
$D\!\!\!/^\dagger=(\partial_0^\dagger+igA_0)\gamma^0+ (\partial_i^\dagger+igA_i)\gamma^i $. Obviously for this to be true, $\partial_\mu^\dagger=-\partial_\mu$, but why? My understanding was that $\partial_\mu$ really represents $\mathbf{I}_{2x2} \partial_\mu$ for SU(2).
I am then further interested in understanding if in Minkowski space the Dirac operator is Hermitian, anti-Hermitian, or none of the above.
Similar to above, working in the (+,-,-,-) metric, noting in this case $\gamma_0^\dagger=\gamma_0$ and $\gamma_i^\dagger=-\gamma_i$,
$D\!\!\!/=\gamma^0(\partial_0-igA_0)-\gamma^i(\partial_i-igA_i) $,
so
$D\!\!\!/^\dagger=(\partial_0^\dagger+igA_0)\gamma^0 -(\partial_i^\dagger+igA_i)(-\gamma^i)=(-\partial_0+igA_0)\gamma^0 -(-\partial_i+igA_i)(-\gamma^i)=-\big((\partial_0-igA_0)\gamma^0+(\partial^i-igA_i)\gamma^i \big)\neq -D\!\!\!/ ~~\text{or}~~D\!\!\!/ $
Edit After a helpful comment, I see that $\partial_\mu^\dagger=-\partial_\mu$, however I believe I made a mistake in my original Minkowski space derivation, and I don't think it is non-Hermitian generally. Can anyone clarify this?