In section 1.2 on p. 14 in the book Many-Particle Physics by Gerald D. Mahan, he points out that the Schrödinger equation in the form
$$i\hbar\frac{\partial\psi}{\partial t}~=~\Big[-\frac{\hbar^2\nabla^2}{2m}+U(\textbf{r})\Big]\psi(\textbf{r},t)\tag{1.93}$$
can be obtained as the Euler-Lagrange equation corresponding to a Lagrangian density of the form
$$L~=~i\hbar\psi^*\dot{\psi}-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla\psi^*\cdot\nabla\psi-U(\textbf{r})\psi^*\psi.\tag{1.94}$$
I have a discomfort with this derivation. As far as I know a Lagrangian is a classical object. Is it justified in constructing a Lagrangian that has $\hbar$ built into it?