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Stupid question, but why two particles at different points on a curved manifold do not have any well-defined notion of relative velocity?

For instance n cosmology the light from distant galaxies is redshifted with respect to the frequencies we would observe from a nearby stationary source. Since this phenomenon bears such a close resemblance to the conventional Doppler effect due to relative motion, it is very tempting to say that the galaxies are “receding away from us” at a speed defined by their redshift.

But since we are on a curved manifold such a concept simply cannot be. But why can't we define relative velocity here?

  • Please clarify: What is, for the context of this question, "velocity" between two different points. For two points I can define a 4-dim geodetic distance. I will not observe any Doppler effect. If I have two world-lines $\alpha$ and $\beta$ I can start to send out frequencies on one and receive them on the other. This could be a start for a definition of relative speed as based on redshift. So: Why do you think that this cannot be used for some definition of velocity? I fail to see the supposed contradiction here and the gist of the question. – Nobody-Knows-I-am-a-Dog Aug 19 '19 at 10:15
  • @Nobody-Knows-I-am-a-Dog Reading Carrolls book I saw it mentioned in the curvature section. These lectures also say that "But two par ticles at different points on a curved manifold do not have any well-defined notion of relati ve velocity — the concept simply makes no sense."

    http://www.physics.ucc.ie/apeer/PY4112/Curvature.pdf

    – gyzgyz123 Aug 19 '19 at 10:25
  • Thanks for the source and the clarification. I think I can now attempt an answer to that. – Nobody-Knows-I-am-a-Dog Aug 19 '19 at 11:10

2 Answers2

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Velocity vectors at different points belong to different tangent spaces, so they aren't directly comparable.

That's why.

  • I see a bit of a problem here and elaborate on this in an update to my attempt of an answer. – Nobody-Knows-I-am-a-Dog Aug 19 '19 at 12:59
  • @Nobody-Knows-I-am-a-Dog Well due to Parallel transport being dependent on curvature 2 tangent fields can never be objectively compared. So velocity is not globally defined only locally. That's how I understand it. – gyzgyz123 Aug 19 '19 at 13:46
  • That's not really an answer. In Newtonian physics velocities of objects at different points also belong to different tangent spaces (assuming suitable geometric formalism, such as Newton–Cartan theory) yet relative velocity could be defined (and is actually quite useful concept). – A.V.S. Aug 19 '19 at 13:55
  • @A.V.S. Yes, because newtonian physics is flat thus tangent spaces can be moved and compared freely. It is the notion of curvature that stops from doing that in GR. – gyzgyz123 Aug 19 '19 at 14:01
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    The impossibility of comparing velocities (vectors) at widely separated regions corresponds to the path-dependence of parallel transport on a curved manifold. These considerations were enough to give Einstein the idea that gravity was a manifestation of spacetime curvature. – gyzgyz123 Aug 19 '19 at 14:17
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    The notion of “velocity” (as opposed to 4-velocity) implies 3+1 spacetime split. In the context of cosmology we know that the spatial geometry is very close to flat (at least at large scales). So, can we not transport the 3-vector of velocity of one object to the location of another across nearly flat spatial slice? – A.V.S. Aug 19 '19 at 14:32
  • Well according to Carroll and all other GR textbooks you can't but update me if you find something. – gyzgyz123 Aug 19 '19 at 15:29
  • @A.V.S. It boils down to what one expects from "velocity". Cosmologists are pretty happy with recession speeds calculated from Doppler effects and being larger than $c$. GR textbooks are often handwaving, providing no formal non-existence proofs. Differential geometers do that but are outside of physics community. OP seems to be part of GR textbook community and thus is fine with this answer; as a math guy I am not happy with it. The mileage may vary :-) – Nobody-Knows-I-am-a-Dog Aug 20 '19 at 14:26
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The (exact mathematical) treatment of physical notions may depend on the particular theory through which we analyze them. If we look at notions in one theory and carry over this notion to a different theory, contradictions and paradoxa may result.

It looks like the problem here comes up by confusing notions from special relativity (SR) with notions from (GR).

To begin with: Two different points on a curved manifold do not allow a meaningful definition of velocity. We may, of course, define a notion of distance, for example by defining it as the minimum of the lengths of all curves connecting the two points. For defining velocity we need some notion of time or space-time or motion, which we do not have in a generic curved manifold.

The clarification given in the comment and in particular the cited lecture notes, are helpful, since they fill in some missing parts of the question. I see the followin approaches for resolving the paradox.

No clear definitions: The lecture notes claim that no "notion of velocity" is well-defined but they do not give a clear intuition of which properties a notion should have to qualify as "velocity". Thus, they are making an empty statement.

Misunderstanding 1: Lack of context: Between two points there never is a notion of velocity, independently of the nature of the manifold. What the lecture notes actually mean (but not say) is: We look at two particles (not: points) moving along geodesics in a space-time manifold.

Misunderstanding 2: Lack of criteria for "velocity": Between two particles moving on geodesics we now can attempt to define various concepts and the question then can be asked if they rightfully should be called "velocity" or not. I could, for example, study Doppler shift. I could, for example, send a photon from object $A$ to object $B$ and there have it reflected to $A$ and then divide the time measured in $A$ by some textbook value of speed of light and call the result "distance". Then I could measure "distance" in every "second" (as determined by my clock in $A$) and use the results to obtain another value which I could then call "velocity". I even can define operations to obtain "acceleration". The question is just if this experiment provides me with read-outs which I want to call "velocity" in my theory. So I can, of course, call what my Doppler formula or my other experiments provide, a "velocity". Depending on how I define this "velocity" I will get different and probably obscure results which might contradict my intuitive notion of what I expect from a velocity.

Misunderstanding 3: Confusing SR and GR: The lecture notes then proceed with "implies that some galaxies are receding faster than light, in apparent contradiction with relativity". I have several doubts regarding this sentence. First of all I am never shocked by contradictions between physical models. We have such contradictions all the time (for example between orthodox quantum mechanics and locality, between galaxy rotations curves and general relativity, and many more). Second there is no contradiction. Relative velocities of particles higher than the speed of light in vacuum only are a problem in special relativity. The setting given in the lecture notes (manifolds, parallel transport etc) indicate a setting of general relativity, where this does not pose a problem.

Cosmologic phenomena: In fact, some general relativistic space-times do show interesting phenomena. First of all: The time which passes between two events in space-time depends on the path the measuring clock travels when connecting these two events. So we could also claim: "This is no notion of time". Second: There are some objects which, according to measurements and models, recede from us with a higher "velocity" than the speed of light (due to expansion of space). It is a matter of debate and taste, if we call this "velocity" or "redshift Doppler factor". Third: Since these objects recede from us faster than light, also the experiment suggested above to measure distance or velocity or whatever fails, since photons we send out from earth will never reach these objects (and we only can look into their past until such a moment that we lose them out of sight). But Doppler shift is one possibility to attempt to define such a thing like velocity.

Update for the added question "Why does Carroll say that there is no such thing as velocity when you defined it here?". I have not checked the line of reasoning of Carroll and would appreciate a hint to which page you are referring to.

That said: I would distinguish the conceptual layers of physics and mathematics.

In physics, I can define all kinds of experiments and call the result "velocity". If it is distance divided by time it is most close to the naive definition of velocity. If it is Doppler factor and turns out to be larger than $c$ then one might be a bit more reluctant to call the corresponding value "velocity". However, one could also take a more rigid approach: We know that there is no such thing like separate differences in time values and in location values, so this entire business of velocities does not exist if we are beyond Newtonian physics (and discard special relativity as being a falsified model and mere approximation to gravity-free low energy situations).

In mathematics, we work inside of a specific formal model. In this model I can have formal proofs of non-existence for formally specified objects, such as for There is no real value $r$ such that $r^2 = -1$. An informal reasoning as given in https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/497610/139287 is atypical for how mathematics works, since it comprises no formal reasoning. Moreover, there is a well known method to solve such situations. for the given example, we extend the real numbers into the complex number field. Similarly, we could extend the notion of a manifold with tangent vectors into a notion of a manifold with tangent vectors where I can compare vectors residing in different tangent spaces. Such methods are known in several different forms (see Levi-Civita connection, parallel transport, covariant derivative, vector bundle etc.) Again the question is whether I am fine to call the resulting object a "velocity" or whatever.

Going back to the original cosmological question: It is pretty much standard to define something as peculiar velocity (with respect to the so-called comoving coordinates) and this also can be taken for reasoning about Doppler shifts, as is regularly done in astronomy. Of course, there can be reasons why one would not like to call this "velocity".

Unfortunately, many (particularly physical) texts do not distinguish clearly the different levels of reasoning and of forming notions. However, it helps cutting down on the number of pages a student has to digest...

  • Ok, but why does Carroll say that there is no such thing as velocity when you defined it here? What is his definition of velocity and why doesn't the apparent doppler shift count as one. I basically had your comment in my head and just couldn't figure out what he means. To me it's obvious that some sort of velocity can be measured by for example the CMB. Is it a statement that universal reference frames don't exist thus the notion of velocity isn't globally defined or something? – gyzgyz123 Aug 19 '19 at 12:11
  • https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/400457/what-does-general-relativity-say-about-the-relative-velocities-of-objects-that-a

    Some more discussion here.

    – gyzgyz123 Aug 19 '19 at 12:15