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We often take $\phi (x) |0\rangle$ to mean preparing a particle at position $x$. We also take $\langle 0|\phi(x) \phi(y)|0\rangle$ to mean the probability of creating a particle at $y$ and observing it at $x$.

I believe these are just mnemonics to get intuitive meanings of terms in the propagator? I don't think one ever talks about real particles at a position using $\phi (x)|0\rangle$. It only shows up as a mathematical term in the S-matrix calculation.

I do get that $\phi (x)|0\rangle$ is a superposition of all momentum eigenkets. But still the coefficients in the superposition are pretty weird.

  1. The coefficents in the superposition have a $e^{-i\omega _kt}$ or $e^{i\omega_k t}$ factor, and a $\frac{1}{\sqrt {2\omega _k}}$ factor. The time dependent exponential factor can make the position representation spread out in space.

  2. Its not clear to me what it means to create a particle at a time point. The wavefunction looks like $\int \frac{1}{\sqrt {2\omega_k}} e^{-ipx} e^{i \omega t}dp$. This wavefunction seems to imply that a particle was created at $(x,0)$ and was evolved with negative energy $-\omega_k$ till time $(x,t)$. Aren't negative energy particles not allowed?

  3. The norm of $\phi (x) |0\rangle$ isn't the delta function.

  4. If we wanted to talk about a real particle at a position $x$, we could just manually write the state $\int e^{-ipx} |p\rangle dp$. There's no reason to involve $\phi (x)$

  5. The mnemonic only seems to work for scalar field operators $\phi (x)|0\rangle$. How would one interpret something like $A^{\mu} (x) |0\rangle$? $A^{\mu} (x) |0\rangle$ is also a superposition of all momentum states, but it returns four different wavefunctions because of the superscript $\mu$.

For these reasons, I believe it's just a mnemonic. If it is supposed to be taken more literally, then how do we address the above points ? Please help.

Qmechanic
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Ryder Rude
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  • Related/possible duplicates: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/127796/50583 (on the $\phi(x)\lvert 0\rangle$ state), https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/142413/50583 (on the (non-)existence of a QFT position operator), https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/83251/50583 (on a QFT position representation) – ACuriousMind Jul 18 '22 at 10:05

1 Answers1

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$\phi(x)|0\rangle$ is not the state of a particle (I stress that $\phi(x)|0\rangle$ is a one-particle state since I am referring to a free field) with position $x$ (when the temporal component of $x$ is zero in particular).

The situation is different from the momentum representation. Indeed, $a_p^\dagger|0\rangle$ is a momentum-defined one-particle state.

The position representation of the particles of QFT is quite a delicate issue. It is still unclear and actually there are a number of no-go theorems about its existence either in terms of projection valued measures (PVMs) or positive-operator valued measures (POVMs).

An apparent standard definition of the position representation is the famous Newton-Wigner one. It is however plagued by a number of issues concerning locality.

A modern treatise on the issues about the position representation and the various no-go theorems, in relativistic QM can be found here, here, and more recently here.

Probably the most powerful no-go result is the following one.

I should premit some facts. The position representation is defined by a set of operators $P_{E}$ labeled by sets $E \subset \mathbb{R}^3$ in the 3D rest space of a Minkowski reference space. These operators may be orthogonal projectors as in the case of a spectral measure (a PVM): $$\vec{X} = \int_{\mathbb{R}^3} \vec{\lambda} dP(\vec{\lambda})$$
is the triple of position operators.

For instance the Newton-Wigner position operator has this form.

A weaker formulation is the one where the $P_E$ simply define a POVM (Positive-operator valued measure) and one is dealing with the modern formulation of observables.

In both cases $\langle \psi| P_E\psi \rangle$ is the probability to find the particle in $E$ at time $t=0$.

In the case of a POVM, every $P_E$ is simply a positive operator bounded by $I$ instead of an orthogonal projector as in the spectral decomposition where one can also take advantage of some quantum logic formulation.

One of the no-go theorems proved in 2 has the following form.

THEOREM(Halvorson Clifton theorem) There is no POVM (or PVM) $P_E$, labeled by sets in the 3D space of a Minkowski reference frame such that:

1) It is covariant under the action of spacetime translations: $$U^{-1}_{t,a} P_E U_{t,a} = P^{(t)}_{E-a}$$ where $P^{(t)}$ denotes the analogous operator defined at time $t$ (the Heisenberg evolution of the initial one);

2) the generator $H$ of the time translations $U(-t,0)= e^{itH}$ is positive;

3) the operators $P_E$ satisfy locality if $(t,E)$ and $(t',E')$ are spacelike separated then $$[P^{(t)}_E, P^{(t')}_{E'}]=0$$

The last requirement can be refined or weakened and it corresponds to the requirement that we cannot transmit superluminal information with the outcomes of these detectors (a version of the no-signaling requirement)

For instance the Newton-Wigner operator (obtained by integrating its PVM) violates (3) and thus cannot be considered a physical observable.

The theorem above (I stated it in a quite rough way actually, for a precise statement see the reference I posted) is a refinement of a number of previous results due to Hegerfeldt, Borchers, Malament, Castrigiano, Busch, in particular.

All that should answer items 3th and 4th.

Regarding the 1st and 2nd points, barring $1/\sqrt{2\omega_k}$ the only exponential appearing in $\phi(x)|0\rangle$ is the one of $a^\dagger_k$. The phase $e^{-it\omega_k}$ (not $e^{+it\omega_k}$ as it seems you wrote in (2) ) is the correct one since the Hamiltonian is just the factor $\omega_k$ in the momentum basis. $\phi(t,\vec{x})|0\rangle$ is just the Schroedinger evolution up to time t of $\phi(0,\vec{x})|0\rangle$.

Your last point (5) is quite difficult due to the presence of gauge degrees of freedom. In the Hilbert space of the photon there are only two-degrees of freedom whereas the associated quantum field has apparently 4 degrees of freedom.

The formally added 2 degrees of freedom have their reason in making explicit the Lorentz covariance of the theory.

The one-particle state of the photon is obtained by $A_\mu(x)|0\rangle$ after removing the gauge redundancies and it can be done with several procedures (e.g. the Gupta-Bleuler one).

However, the definition of the position operator for photons is even more difficult than for massive particles.

  • Could you give more specific reason why position representation is different from other representations and what difficulties arise when using it? – Roger V. Jul 18 '22 at 09:33
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    $\phi(x)|0\rangle$ isn't necessarily a one-particle state in interacting QFT. It can be a multiparticle state too as long as the quantum numbers come out right (this is why correlation functions generically have branch cuts) – octonion Jul 18 '22 at 09:42
  • Yes, I was referring to the free case, where one detects free particles when the interactions are switched off. Sorry but there are some problems with the links I added to my answer, I hope somebody may adjust them. – Valter Moretti Jul 18 '22 at 09:43
  • No offense, but the answer is still abstract statements and references: could you be more specific (for the benefit of the community)? – Roger V. Jul 18 '22 at 09:45
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    No offense. Done! – Valter Moretti Jul 18 '22 at 10:10
  • So I think the answer to the 3rd and 4th points is that, in QFT, we can't talk about delta function position particles. Please also address the 1st, 2nd and 5th points. If $A^{\mu}(x)|0\rangle$ gives four different wavefunctions, how can one interpret it as a single photon localised at $x$? Also, for non-zero $t$, $\phi(x,t)|0\rangle$ seems to imply negative-energy particles state as I explained in my second point. Also, for non-zero $t$, the wavepacket is extremely spread out and can't be interpreted as a particle localised near $x$ (point no.1) – Ryder Rude Jul 18 '22 at 11:41
  • $\phi(t,x) |0\rangle$ for $t\in R$ has no negative energy by construction. However, that is the problem! As first remarked by Hegerfeldt, this implies that the spatial probability cannot be sharply localized as you notice. This is one of the ingredients of the no-go theorem I quoted. – Valter Moretti Jul 18 '22 at 12:16
  • I've read that the operator is $\phi (x)=\int a_{p} e^{-ipx}+a^{\dagger} _p e^{ipx}dp$. The creation operator has $e^{ipx}$ in front, which would be $e^{ip_0x_0-p_1x_1-p_2x_2-p_3x_3}$. The temporal part $e^{ip_0 x_0}$ is positive, which would imply negative energy. About the point no.4, the Fock space of Photons has all vectors of the form $|\vec{p}, r\rangle$, $r=1,2$. So don't we already have enough basis vectors to create both polarisation states (because of $r=1,2$)? Then why would we need four copies of this Fock space? I'm sorry if I'm being stupid. Please help. – Ryder Rude Jul 18 '22 at 12:30
  • The energy factor in front of the creation operator must be always $e^{-it\omega_k}$ independently of the convention used. Regarding (4), you can use a two-component field but the action of the Lorentz group would be non-covariant explicitly (the further added fake degrees of freedom adjust this problem) – Valter Moretti Jul 18 '22 at 12:36
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    This answer is so deep and useful. Thanks for sharing your knowledge and references. As for condition 2) in the Halvorson Clifton theorem, I guess this is equivalent to having a hamiltonian which is bounded from below, because we can just add a constant? And, is there any other reason we require H to be bounded from below other than the existence of a ground state? – doublefelix Jul 18 '22 at 12:45
  • Yes it is equivalent to that. Actually it is not necessary to assume that the theory supports a strongly-continuous representation of the Poincaré group, it is sufficient the existence of a strongly continuous unitary repr of the four-translations with generator of time translations bounded below + some further contraint regarding the classical existence of a maximal speed... – Valter Moretti Jul 18 '22 at 12:59
  • Regarding positivity of energy, even if there is no ground state, energy unbounded below should imply general instability as soon as one includes perturbations. Finally the requirement of positive energy is part of the definition of elementary particle by Wigner. It is very difficult to relax this condition. – Valter Moretti Jul 18 '22 at 13:02
  • Does it to be a separate axiom of QFT that these functions are approximately the eigenfunctions of position? In ordinary QM, the axiom $[X,P]=i$ implies that $X$ and $P$ are related by Fourier transforms. But in QFT, the quantisation axiom $[\phi (x), \phi'(x)=i]$ doesn't say anything about the Fourier (or approximate Fourier) relation between position and momentum measurments. So I think that needs to be put in as a separate axiom in QFT, thereby defining position measurments. – Ryder Rude Jul 19 '22 at 06:13