Your doubt is not ridiculous, it is probably simply due to the confused way often mathematics is taught in physics. (I am a physicist too and, during my career, I had to bear ridiculous misconceptions, wasting lot of time in tackling non-existent pseudo-mathematical problems instead of focusing on genuine physical issues). There are sensible mathematical definitions, but there is also a practical use of math in physics. Disasters arise, in my view, when the two levels are confused, especially while teaching students.
The Hilbert space of a particle in QM is not continuous: it is a separable Hilbert space, $L^2(\mathbb R)$ which, just in view of being separable, admits discrete countable orthogonal bases.
Moreover, a well known theorem proves that if a Hilbert space admits a countable orthonormal basis, then every other basis is countable
(more generally, all Hilbert bases have same cardinality).
In $L^2(\mathbb R)$, a countable basis with physical meaning is, for instance, that made of the eigenvectors $\psi_n$ of the harmonic oscillator Hamiltonian operator.
However, it is convenient for practical computations also speaking of formal eigenvectors of, for example, the position operator: $|x\rangle$. In this case, $x \in \mathbb R$ so it could seem that $L^2(\mathbb R)$ admits also uncountable bases. It is false! $\{|x\rangle\}_{x\in \mathbb R}$ is not an orthonormal basis. It is just a formal object, (very) useful in computations.
If you want to make rigorous these objects, you should picture the space of the states as a direct integral over $\mathbb R$ of finite dimensional spaces $\mathbb C$, or as a rigged Hilbert space. In both cases however $\{|x\rangle\}_{x\in \mathbb R}$ is not an orthonormal Hilbertian basis. And $|x\rangle$ does not belong to $L^2(\mathbb R)$.
As a final remark, I would like to stress that the vectors of $L^2(\mathbb R)$ are equivalence classes of functions: $\psi$ is equivalent to $\phi$ iff $\int| \psi(x)−\phi(x)|^2 dx=0$, so if $\psi(x)\neq \phi(x)$ on a set whose measure vanishes, they define however the same vector of $L^2$. Consequently the value an element of the space assumes at a given $x$ does not make any sense, since each set $\{x\}$ has zero measure.