I am confused about a proof my Quantum Mechanics textbook has left "as an exercise for the reader".
So, we've got the angular momentum operator $\hat{L}$. We've also got the generalized angular momentum $\hat{J}: \hat{L}=\hbar\hat{J}$. We've got the commutation relations $[\hat{J_k},\hat{J_l}]$ and $[\hat{J^2},\hat{J_k}]$.
We've introduced the "ladder operators" $\hat{J_+}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\hat{J_1}+i\hat{J_2})$ and $\hat{J_-}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\hat{J_1}-i\hat{J_2})$.
Then, we went on to prove three properties for the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of $\hat{J^2}$ and $\hat{J_3}$: $\hat{J^2}\left|J,m\right\rangle=J^2\left|J,m\right\rangle$, $\hat{J_3}\left|J,m\right\rangle=m\left|J,m\right\rangle$:
$m^2\leq J^2$ (so there are minimal and maximal $m$s).
$J_+$ "raises" $m$ to $m+1$, $J_-$ "lowers" $m$ to $m-1$.
$j$ (which comes from $J^2 \rightarrow j(j+1)$) is an integer or half-integer number.
The question my textbook asks is: Why is $\Delta m$ an integer number?
I thought it was because of the second property but when I asked my professor, he told me this was not a good proof. "$J_+$ changing $m$ from 0 to 1 does not prove that $\Delta m = 1/3$ is impossible".
So, how do I prove this? I thought it was quite trivial, but it turned out it is not.
P.S.: I already viewed this question but it doesn't help me much.
Edit: I may have got a little "lost in translation". The real question my textbook asks is Why is $\Delta m$ an integer number?