What is known of the reverse math of Riemann-Roch?

Asked Oct 11 '13 at 15:47

Active Oct 11 '13 at 21:16

Viewed 348 times

I hope this is not too trivial, but I think this may be well known to someone (not me).

edited Oct 11 '13 at 21:16

Jason Rute

asked Oct 11 '13 at 15:47

Colin McLarty

1

Just the classical form? – François G. Dorais Oct 11 '13 at 15:53
4

What do you mean by "reverse math"? – Liviu Nicolaescu Oct 11 '13 at 16:34
3

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reverse_mathematics – Benjamin Steinberg Oct 11 '13 at 17:09
1

At least over an algebraically closed field, any given instance will be provable in that complete theory. On the other hand, the usual assertion which quantifies over all line bundles is indirectly making some statement in the language of arithmetic, much as here:
http://mathoverflow.net/questions/105478/finite-dimensional-real-division-algebras

A priori, the same questions apply.
– Adam Epstein Oct 11 '13 at 18:34

0 Answers0