Consider the Peano axioms. There exists a model for them (namely, the natural numbers with a ordering relation $<$, binary function $+$, and constant term $0$). Therefore, by the model existence theorem, shouldn't this suffice to prove the consistency of first order arithmetic? Why is Gentzen's proof necessary?
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3How do you know the natural numbers satisfy the Peano axioms? (Personally I have no doubt about this, but some people do have doubts, and some of those are much smarter than I am.) – Steven Landsburg Dec 03 '15 at 05:54
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1I think it's reasonable to take, say, "the unique model of second-order Peano arithmetic" as a definition of the natural numbers; hence they satisfy the first-order Peano arithmetic axioms by definition. The problem is then: how do you know the natural numbers exist? – Qiaochu Yuan Dec 03 '15 at 06:31
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3It may help if you locate Gentzen's proof in the context of "foundational debate" : see Hilbert's program and The consistency of arithmetic and analysis. If you are interested to the question : "how may I prove that there exists a "structure" satisfying Peano's axioms", then you cannot invoke the model existence theorem, because it presuppose the consistency of the theory, and this is "hard" to prove (if we do not assume the existence of the sought structure). – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Dec 03 '15 at 08:01
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2@StevenLandsburg: "...but some people have doubts..." Who, exactly? – Thomas Benjamin Dec 03 '15 at 09:52
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@user3730940: Also, is the "model existence theorem" the following form of Goedel's Completeness Theorem: For any first-order theory $T$, $T$ is consistent iff $T$ has a model? I think your question, "Why is Gentzen's proof necessary?", is a good research-level question from a mathematical- philosophy point of view because the answer would help clarify the conceptual presuppositions surrounding the proof. – Thomas Benjamin Dec 03 '15 at 10:06
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1@ThomasBenjamin: I believe Voevodsky is an example of someone who both has doubts and is much smarter than me. (Though, per Qiaochu's comment, it would be clearer to say that his doubts concern the consistency of Peano arithmetic and hence the existence of the natural numbers). – Steven Landsburg Dec 03 '15 at 16:06
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1@ThomasBenjamin Also Edward Nelson, if I understand his views correctly. – Noah Schweber Dec 03 '15 at 20:32
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Related: http://mathoverflow.net/questions/66121/is-pa-consistent-do-we-know-it – Timothy Chow Dec 03 '15 at 21:36
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http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1557664/why-is-there-a-need-for-ordinal-analysis – Asaf Karagila Dec 04 '15 at 18:37
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@user3730940: Regarding your question "Why is Gentzen's proof necessary?", is there any deeper reason for your question other than '$PA$ is a first-order theory. By Goedel's completeness theorem, every first-order theory $T$ is consistent iff it has a model. $PA$ has a model' should suffice? The deeper reason I am concerned with is the fact that many (Andreas Blass being one of them) hold to the view that $\epsilon_0$-induction, being an example of 'transfinite induction', is ostensibly 'non-finitary' (similarly for the use of $\omega^{\omega}$-induction to prove the consistency of – Thomas Benjamin Dec 09 '15 at 06:11
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(cont.) $PRA$). Do you? I ask because there are those (Richard Zach being one of them, particularly in his paper "The Practice of Finitism: Epsilon Calculus and and Consistency Proofs in Hilbert's Program (arXiv: math0102819v1 [mathLO]), in particular section 3.2 titled "The Consistency Proof For Primitive Recursive Arithmetic.") who do not. If I were to give you an answer along these lines, would you find such an answer particularly helpful? – Thomas Benjamin Dec 09 '15 at 06:33
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Note: You might find Jeremy Avigad's paper "Ordinal Analysis Without Proofs" of particular interest because, as he states in his abstract, "An approach to ordinal analysis is presented which is finitary, but highlights the semantic content of the theories under consideration, rather than the syntactic structure of their proofs...." – Thomas Benjamin Dec 09 '15 at 06:49
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@NoahSchweber: Are you aware that Terry Tao found a flaw in Nelson's 'proof' of the inconsistency of $PA$? – Thomas Benjamin Dec 22 '15 at 17:39
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@ThomasBenjamin Yes, this was found very quickly (for those interested, see the comment thread at https://golem.ph.utexas.edu/category/2011/09/the_inconsistency_of_arithmeti.html) but I don't see how that's relevant. I don't think the error being discovered changed Nelson's beliefs about PA significantly (although obviously I don't know this for certain - more accurately, I know of no evidence that it did). – Noah Schweber Dec 22 '15 at 18:03
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@NoahSchweber: But is is relevant to the question, "How do you know the natural numbers satisfy the Peano Axioms?". We have a 'semblance' of a model for the Peano Axioms--if Nelson was successful, then contentual number theory (the standard model) would exhibit the same inconsistency, right? But the inconsistency proof for $PA$ failed, and $PA$ is safe (for now...). – Thomas Benjamin Dec 23 '15 at 17:21
2 Answers
The axioms of first-order arithmetic include the induction schema, which says that, for every formula $A(x)$ with free variable $x$, the conjunction of $A(0)$ and $\forall x\,(A(x)\rightarrow A(x+1))$ implies $\forall x\,A(x)$. This is, of course, a special case of the well-known and basic induction property of the natural numbers that says the same thing for any property $A(x)$ whatsoever, whether or not it's defined by a first-order formula. For anyone who (1) understands the natural numbers well enough to grasp the general induction principle and (2) believes that (first-order) quantifiers over the natural numbers are meaningful so that first-order formulas $A(x)$ really define properties, it is clear that the natural number system satisfies all of the first-order Peano axioms, and therefore those axioms are consistent.
A difficulty arises if one adopts a very strong constructivist or finitist viewpoint, doubting item (2) above, i.e., questioning the meaning of first-order quantifiers $\forall z$ and $\exists z$ when $z$ ranges over an infinite set (like $\mathbb N$) so that one can't actually check each individual $z$. From such a viewpoint, the formulas $A(x)$ occurring in the induction schema are gibberish (or close to gibberish, or at least not clear enough to be used in mathematical reasoning), and then the proposed consistency proof collapses.
The chief virtue of Gentzen's consistency proof is that it essentially avoids any explicit quantification over infinite sets. It can be formulated in terms of very basic, explicit, computational constructions (technically, in terms of primitive recursive functions and relations). There is, however, a cost for this virtue, namely that one needs an induction principle not just for the usual well-ordering of the natural numbers but for the considerably longer well-ordering $\varepsilon_0$.
Thus, Gentzen uses a much longer well-ordering, but his induction principle is only about primitive recursive properties, not about arbitrary first-order definable properties. There is a trade-off: Length of well-ordering versus quantification.
I believe the trade-off can be made rather precise, but I don't remember the details. Recall that $\varepsilon_0$ is the limit of the sequence of iterated exponentials $\omega(0)=\omega$ and $\omega(n+1)=\omega^{\omega(n)}$. If we weaken PA by limiting the induction principle to formulas $A(x)$ that can be defined with a fixed number $n$ of quantifiers, then the consistency of this weakened theory can be proved using primitive recursive induction up to $\omega(n)$, as proved by Carnielli and Rathjen in "Hydrae and subsystems of arithmetic". In other words, the trade-off is that an additional quantifier in the induction formulas costs an additional exponential in the ordinal.

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Very well explained. Definitely not $2n$; I don't remember exactly either, but it's $n$ or $n\pm1$. – Emil Jeřábek Dec 03 '15 at 11:45
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so to most mathematicians -- those without constructivist or finitist leanings -- gentzen's proof isn't necessary? – user3730940 Dec 03 '15 at 13:22
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Yes, from the viewpoint of most mathematicians, first-order Peano arithmetic is obviously consistent because all its axioms are true under the standard interpretation (natural numbers with the usual addition and multiplication). – Andreas Blass Dec 03 '15 at 15:55
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@AndreasBlass: Just to get my facts straight: i) did the "Hilbert School" have what they deemed a 'finitary' proof of the consistency of $PRA$ before the Goedel and Gentzen results; ii) did Gentzen prove the consistency of $PRA$+"Induction principle for $\epsilon_{0}$"? If so then the following principle of Hilbert seems to be relevant (this from "On the Infinite"): "For there is a condition, a single but absolutely necessary one, to which the use of the method of ideal elements [in this case, the induction principle for $\epsilon_{0}$ --my comment] is subject, and that is the proof of – Thomas Benjamin Dec 04 '15 at 07:10
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(cont.) consistency; for, extension by the additions of ideals is legitimate by only if no contradiction is thereby brought about in the old, narrower domain [$PRA$--my comment], that is, if the relations that result for the old objects whenever the ideal objects are eliminated are valid in the old domain [relative consistency result?--my question and comment ] ." Note also that $PRA$ can be recast in terms of concatenation and operations and relations on the strings $e$ (the 'empty' string), |, ||, |||,.., etc., so one can dispense with questions regarding the 'existence' or 'nonexistence' – Thomas Benjamin Dec 04 '15 at 07:45
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(cont.) of 'numbers'. (Note: the Hilbert quote I used can be found in van Heijenoort, pg. 383). What does this mean? Well,for me, at least, it means that Gentzen's proof of the consistency of $PA$ falls squarely within the letter and spirit of Hilbert's Program (though perhaps not as Hilbert wanted it, exactly....). – Thomas Benjamin Dec 04 '15 at 07:50
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I don't think Hilbert's school had what they'd consider a finitary proof of the consistency of PRA. By today's standards, "finitary" would mean "formalizable in PRA", and PRA can't prove its own consistency. As far as I know, Gentzen did not try to prove the consistency of PRA + induction for $\varepsilon_0$; rather he just used this theory to prove the consistency of PA. – Andreas Blass Dec 04 '15 at 12:13
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@ThomasBenjamin If you're still interested in this thread, objecting to consistency of PRA+TI($\varepsilon_0$) may itself be argued by ordinal analysis, as in this relevant question: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/369254 – C7X Aug 16 '22 at 22:46
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@C7X: I see your point (I think). Is it essentially that ordinal analysis of necessity seems to need to presuppose the consistency of $PRA$ + TI($\omega_{1}^{CK}$) (or worse) in order to claim that $PRA$+$TI$$($\epsilon_{0}$)$ is consistent? – Thomas Benjamin Aug 17 '22 at 07:55
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@ThomasBenjamin Certainly PRA + TI($\varepsilon_0$) is consistent; its axioms are all true (in the standard natural numbers) and its rules of inference preserve truth. – Andreas Blass Aug 17 '22 at 16:37
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@AndreasBlass: That very well might be ( and probably is) true, but C7X (I think) believes otherwise and he/she – Thomas Benjamin Aug 17 '22 at 17:29
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@ThomasBenjamin Though I haven't studied it in detail, the discussion at C7X's link seems to be entirely about what is or is not provable in some weak systems, whereas my comment is about what is known to be true (and provable in strong systems, like ZF). – Andreas Blass Aug 17 '22 at 17:35
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@AndreasBlass: True, but can $PRA's$ soundness be proven in (say) $PRA$? – Thomas Benjamin Aug 17 '22 at 17:41
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(cont.)/? contacted me last night regarding the alternate view and I asked my question to get clarification regarding that. – Thomas Benjamin Aug 17 '22 at 17:48
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@ThomasBenjamin What is $PRA'$? If it includes PRA, then PRA can't prove its soundness, or even its consistency, thanks to Gödel. – Andreas Blass Aug 17 '22 at 18:00
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@AndreasBlass: And soundness of $PRA$ is that the axioms of $PRA$ are assumed to be true and that the rules of inference preserve truth, correct? – Thomas Benjamin Aug 17 '22 at 18:11
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@ThomasBenjamin Apologies for my unclear comment. I personally don't have a problem with believing PRA+TI($\varepsilon_0$) consistent, but in case some hypothetical reader does, $Con(PRA+TI(\varepsilon_0))$ can itself be justified by additional Gentzen-style reasoning. Additionally a "turtles all the way down" argument of "how do we know that theory is consistent?" can be justified by even more analysis with larger ordinals. I'm not an expert on MO's rules, so if we continue this discussion is it best to continue in chat? – C7X Aug 18 '22 at 03:20
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In addition to the reasons Andreas gives, Gentzen's theorem gives additional information that's interesting even if you don't have any qualms about consistency.
In particular, ordinal analysis gives a fairly precise characterization of the provably total computable functions of a theory (and, along with it, a lot of information about the structure of proofs in PA).

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