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Let $x>0$ and $n$ be a natural number. Prove that: $$\left(\frac{x^n+1}{x^{n-1}+1}\right)^n+\left(\frac{x+1}{2}\right)^n\geq x^n+1.$$

This question is very similar to many contests problems, but I think it's much more harder than contest problem and it's just impossible to solve this problem during a competition.

In my fifth comment I wrote:

I took it here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3304808/refinement-of-a-famous-inequality.

but I think there is no a chance that it will be solved there.

I tried to use $$M_n^2\geq M_{n+1}M_{n-1},$$ where $x>0$ and $M_n=\sqrt[n]{\frac{x^n+1}{2}}$, but without success.

I think a perspective way to solve this problem it's something like the following wrong way:

https://mathoverflow.net/revisions/337457/1

Thank you!

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    General claim with $a,b,c,d$ is certainly false already for $n=2$: say, check $(5,4,7,1)$. – Fedor Petrov Aug 02 '19 at 06:00
  • @Fedor Petrov But for $a$, $b$, $c$ and $d$, which was defined in my post it seems true. I think here there is something. Maybe we can take another symmetric functions instead $a+b$ and $ab$. Thank you for your interest! – Michael Rozenberg Aug 02 '19 at 07:05
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    In fact more should be true: $$\Big(\frac{x^n+1}{x^{n-1}+1}\Big)^n+\Big(\frac{x+1}{2}\Big)^n-x^n-1=\frac{(x-1)^4}{2^n\big({x^{n-1}+1}\big)^n}P_n(x)$$ With $P_n(x)$ a (symmetric) polynomial with positive integer coefficients. – Pietro Majer Aug 02 '19 at 11:03
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    @PietroMajer it is divisible by $(x-1)^4$ and the constant term of $P_n$ is positive. Possibly the straightforward evaluation of the coefficients of $P_n(x)=(2^n(x^n+1)^n+(x+1)^n(x^{n-1}+1)^n-2^n(x^{n-1}+1)^n(x^n+1))(1-x)^{-4}$ allows to see why they are positive. – Fedor Petrov Aug 02 '19 at 11:29
  • @Fedor Petrov I know that it's divisible by $(x-1)^4$. But why $P_n(x)\geq0$? I tried also to consider $g(x)=n\ln(x^n+1)-n\ln(x^{n-1}+1)-\ln\left(x^n+1-\left(\frac{x+1}{2}\right)^n\right),$ but I did not get something solvable. – Michael Rozenberg Aug 02 '19 at 11:31
  • The reason seems to be, that all its coefficients are positive. It's also easy to see P_n is symmetric (so in case checking that half of the coefficients are positive would suffice). – Pietro Majer Aug 02 '19 at 11:35
  • @Pietro Majer For $n=3$ there is a negative coefficient, but it seems that for all $n>3$ all coefficients are positives. – Michael Rozenberg Aug 02 '19 at 11:42
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    @PietroMajer: In fact it seems that the coefficients of $P_n-P_{n-1}$ are also positive. – GH from MO Aug 02 '19 at 11:42
  • @MichaelRozenberg: There is no negative coefficient for $n=3$. We have $P_3(x)=1+7x+4x^2+4x^3+7x^4+x^5$. – GH from MO Aug 02 '19 at 11:42
  • I meant $1+7x+4x^2+4x^3+7x^4+x^5=(1+x)(x^4+6x^3-2x^2+6x+1).$ OK, we say about $P_n$. – Michael Rozenberg Aug 02 '19 at 11:44
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    BTW I am curious where this problem came up. It seems rather finely tuned. – GH from MO Aug 02 '19 at 11:45
  • Yes, for odd n it is divisible by (x+1), but that would destroy the positivity. – Pietro Majer Aug 02 '19 at 11:46
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    @GHfromMO Indeed $$f(x):=\Big(\frac{x^n+1}{x^{n-1}+1}\Big)^n+\Big(\frac{x+1}{2}\Big)^n-x^n-1$$ verifies $f(x)=x^n f(1/x)$, so it is not so randomly picked after all. (which also implies that for the sake of the initial inequality, $0\le x\le 1$ would sufficie) – Pietro Majer Aug 02 '19 at 11:49
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    @GH from MO I took it here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3304808 but I think there is no a chance that it will be solved there. – Michael Rozenberg Aug 02 '19 at 11:50
  • @MichaelRozenberg but user dezdichado writes there "I think I got a rather cumbersome solution and will type it up sometime tomorrow." – Fedor Petrov Aug 02 '19 at 14:44
  • @Fedor Petrov It was 30.07.2019. :) – Michael Rozenberg Aug 02 '19 at 14:48
  • @MichaelRozenberg people do not always do everything exactly when they are going to do. At least me, possibly dezdichado too. – Fedor Petrov Aug 02 '19 at 16:11
  • @Fedor Petrov Yes, of course. But I don't see any relation of this fact with looking for a solution of the starting problem. – Michael Rozenberg Aug 02 '19 at 16:32
  • There is a certain reduction which reduces this problem to the following one: let $c \in (1/2,1)$. Show that the map $t \mapsto \frac{1-c}{c}\frac{t^{-c}-t^{c}}{t^{c-1}-t^{1-c}}+1-(1+t)\left(\frac{2}{1+t^{1-c}}\right)^{\frac{1}{1-c}}$ can change the sign at most once from $+$ to $-$ on $t \in (0,1)$. This problems seems to be doable, however, I still did not come up with a "nice" explanation of it. Let me see if somebody else writes better solution otherwise I may write about this reduction later. – Paata Ivanishvili Aug 02 '19 at 22:15
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    Over at math.se this was tagged "contest math". If this actually is from a contest, then it should not be posed as a problem here until after the contest is over. Does anyone know anything more about this? – Todd Trimble Aug 02 '19 at 22:51
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    @Michael Rozenberg In the original post, $n$ is not assumed to be an integer. The inequality should hold for any positive real number $n\ge 1$. – River Li Aug 03 '19 at 04:12
  • @River Li I also think so. In my trying I showed it. – Michael Rozenberg Aug 03 '19 at 07:08
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    @ToddTrimble usually when somebody says "I refine a famous inequality" it is assumed to be their own refinement, not a contest problem. – Fedor Petrov Aug 04 '19 at 16:34
  • @FedorPetrov Could be; I was just wondering if anyone had information on that, not that I positively suspect it is a current contest problem. Incidentally, do you happen to know what the famous inequality refers to? – Todd Trimble Aug 04 '19 at 16:39
  • @ToddTrimble no idea, but in any case I do not know almost all inequalities which are famous in olympiad inequalities community. – Fedor Petrov Aug 04 '19 at 17:14
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    @Yemon Choi My name is Michael. I don't think that this problem from a contest. Just this problem is very similar to many contest problems. I think this problem is very hard for a contest. – Michael Rozenberg Aug 04 '19 at 18:37
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    @user64494 as usual, when you leave this kind of standard comment, you seem reluctant to go into details. Do you want to reconsider your earlier comment in this thread, or expand on your reasons for this assessment/opinion? – Yemon Choi Aug 04 '19 at 19:43
  • @Michael Rozenberg Nice. Is your solution complicated? – River Li Aug 05 '19 at 02:26
  • @River Li I still have no a solution. – Michael Rozenberg Aug 05 '19 at 02:36
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    Is it ok to post on MO a question another user posted on MSE without even mentioning in the question that it was somebody else's idea? – Pierre-Yves Gaillard Aug 07 '19 at 12:22
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    @Fedor Petrov I thought I had it then I got stuck at basically what Pietro Majer wrote. After factoring out $(x-1)^4,$ the remaining polynomial is not so easy to work with. – dezdichado Aug 07 '19 at 17:28
  • @dezdichado I think it's just impossible to work with this polynomial. The really perspective way it's the way, which I posted before, but it was deleted. – Michael Rozenberg Aug 08 '19 at 06:42
  • There is also the fine-tuned ${\color{red}{\rm reverse}}$ inequality $\left(\frac{x^n+1+ {\color{blue}{\left(\frac{x+1}{2}\right)^n}}}{x^{n-1}+1+ {\color{blue}{\left(\frac{x+1}{2}\right)^{n-1}}}}\right)^n+\left(\frac{x+1}{2}\right)^n {\color{red}{\leq }} ; x^n+1$, see here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3347245/ – Andreas Oct 22 '20 at 20:44
  • An interesting observation is the following: $$\Big(\frac{x^n+y^n}{x^{n-1}+y^{n-1}} \Big)^n \ge x^n+y^n - \Big(\frac{x+y}{2}\Big)^n \ge \frac{x^n+y^n}{2} .$$ The first inequality is the one under consideration, the second one is an application of Jensen's inequality for two values of the function $x^n$, whereas the inequality between the first and the third expression is a direct application of Slater's inequality (Slater ML, Jour. of Approximation Theory 1981, 32(2):160–166), so we see here a sharpening of Slater's inequality for the function $x^n$. – Andreas Oct 25 '20 at 22:12

4 Answers4

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Corrected proof, see GH from MO's comment and answer: A generalization of the inequality gives more flexibility for variations of parameters, which eventually yields a proof. One observation is $\frac{x+1}{2}=\frac{x^b+1}{x^{b-1}+1}$ for $b=1$. If one wants to achieve $(\frac{x^a+1}{x^{a-1}+1})^n+(\frac{x^b+1}{x^{b-1}+1})^n\geq x^n+1$ for all $x\ge0$, looking at derivatives at $x=1$ shows that a necessary condition is $a+b-1\ge n$. In fact, the following generalization holds true for all real $a,b\ge1$ and $x\ge0$: \begin{equation} \left(\frac{x^a+1}{x^{a-1}+1}\right)^{a+b-1}+\left(\frac{x^b+1}{x^{b-1}+1}\right)^{a+b-1}\geq x^{a+b-1}+1. \end{equation} Setting $n=a+b-1$, $a=(n+1)/2+c/2$, $x=y^2$ and $z=y^c$, this inequality is equivalent to \begin{equation} \left(\frac{y^{n+1}+z}{y^{n-1}+z}\right)^n+\left(\frac{y^{n+1}+1/z}{y^{n-1}+1/z}\right)^n\geq y^{2n}+1, \end{equation} where $y>0$ is arbitrary and $z>0$ is in an interval depending on $y$ and $n$. However, the inequality holds true for all $y>0$ and $z>0$. By the $z\leftrightarrow\frac{1}{z}$ and $y\leftrightarrow\frac{1}{y}$ symmetries, we assume in the following $0<z,y\le1$.

Fix $y$ and $n$. We show that the left hand side is monotonically increasing in $z$. Taking that for granted the assertion follows, for we have equality for $z=0$.

Taking the derivative with respect to $z$, the monotonicity is equivalent to \begin{equation} \left(\frac{y^{n+1}+z}{zy^{n+1}+1}\right)^{n-1}\ge \left(\frac{y^{n-1}+z}{zy^{n-1}+1}\right)^{n+1}. \end{equation} (In a previous version, there was a miscalculation, observed by GH from MO, which made the rest of the "proof" easier.)

Raising both sides to the $\frac{1}{(n-1)(n+1)}$-th power, and fixing now $y$ and $z$, the claim follows once we know that \begin{equation} (0,\infty)\to\mathbb R,\;\;t\mapsto\left(\frac{y^t+z}{zy^t+1}\right)^{\frac{1}{t}} \end{equation} is monotonically increasing in $t$. For this GH from MO's answer contains an elegant proof. Here is another one:

Take the derivative (with respect to $t$) of the logarithm of this function, then multiply by $t^2$ and set $w=y^t$. The result is \begin{equation} h(w,z):=\log w\cdot w\cdot(\frac{1}{w+z}-\frac{z}{zw+1})+\log(zw+1)-\log(w+z). \end{equation} We need to show that $h(w,z)\ge0$ for all $w,z\in(0,1)$. The derivative of $h(w,z)$ with respect to $w$ is \begin{equation} \frac{\partial h(w,z)}{\partial w}=\frac{(1-w^2)(1-z^2)z\log w}{((zw+1)(w+z))^2}<0. \end{equation} So $h(w,z)$, for fixed $z$, is decreasing in $w$. Thus $h(w,z)\ge h(1,z)=0$.

Peter Mueller
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    On the right hand side of your third display, a factor of $\frac{1}{z^2}$ is missing. That is, monotonicity is equivalent to $\left(\frac{y^{n+1}+z}{zy^{n+1}+1}\right)^{n-1}\ge \left(\frac{y^{n-1}+z}{zy^{n-1}+1}\right)^{n+1}$. I added below a detailed proof of this inequality, for any $n\in[1,\infty)$ and $y,z\in[0,1]$. – GH from MO Aug 10 '19 at 04:18
  • $\frac{x+1}{2}=\frac{x^b+1}{x^{b-1}+1}$ it's $\left(x^{b-1}-1\right)(x-1)=0,$ which for $b\neq1$ gives $x=1$ only. – Michael Rozenberg Aug 10 '19 at 10:17
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    @GHfromMO Thank you for spotting the miscalculation and fixing the proof! I added another argument for the final monotonicity assertion. – Peter Mueller Aug 10 '19 at 11:15
  • @PeterMueller: Nice! – GH from MO Aug 10 '19 at 11:46
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    @MichaelRozenberg: Peter Mueller proved the inequality contained in his first display. Setting $a:=n$ and $b:=1$ in this inequality, you obtain the inequality in your post. Alternatively, start from his second display, and set $y:=x^{1/2}$ and $z:=x^{(n-1)/2}$ there. – GH from MO Aug 10 '19 at 11:49
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    It's an extremely nice proof! Thank you Peter! @GH from MO Thank you! – Michael Rozenberg Aug 10 '19 at 18:28
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This is a supplement (correction) to Peter Mueller's nice solution. As he observed, it suffices to show that, for any fixed $n\geq 1$ and $y\in[0,1]$, the function $$z\mapsto\left(\frac{y^{n+1}+z}{y^{n-1}+z}\right)^n+\left(\frac{zy^{n+1}+1}{zy^{n-1}+1}\right)^n,\qquad z\in(0,1),$$ is increasing. (Indeed, $y:=x^{1/2}$ and $z:=x^{(n-1)/2}$ yields the LHS of the OP's inequality, while $y:=x^{1/2}$ and $z:=0$ yields the RHS of the OP's inequality.) Taking the derivative with respect to $z$, the statement becomes $$\left(\frac{y^{n+1}+z}{zy^{n+1}+1}\right)^{n-1}\ge \left(\frac{y^{n-1}+z}{zy^{n-1}+1}\right)^{n+1},\qquad y,z\in(0,1).$$ Let us now fix $y,z\in(0,1)$ and think of $n\geq 1$ as the variable. Taking the logarithm of both sides and dividing by $(n-1)(n+1)$, it suffices to show that the function $$t\mapsto\frac{1}{t}\log\frac{y^t+z}{zy^t+1},\qquad t>0,$$ is increasing. Making the change of variable $w:=y^t$, it suffices to show that the function $$w\mapsto\frac{\log(w+z)-\log(wz+1)}{\log w},\qquad w\in(0,1),$$ is increasing. Writing $w=:\tanh u$ and $z=:\tanh v$, it suffices to show that the function $$u\mapsto\frac{\log\tanh(u+v)}{\log\tanh(u)},\qquad u>0,$$ is increasing. Taking the derivative with respect to $u$, the statement becomes $$\sinh(u)\cdot\cosh(u)\cdot\log\tanh(u)\geq\sinh(u+v)\cdot\cosh(u+v)\cdot\log\tanh(u+v).$$ That is, it suffices to show that the function $$u\mapsto \sinh(u)\cdot\cosh(u)\cdot\log\tanh(u),\qquad u>0,$$ is decreasing. With the notation $s:=-\log\tanh(u)$, we have $$\sinh(u)\cdot\cosh(u)\cdot\log\tanh(u)=\frac{e^{-s}}{\sqrt{1-e^{-2s}}}\cdot\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-e^{-2s}}}\cdot(-s)=\frac{-s}{2\sinh s},$$ hence it suffices to show that the function $$s\mapsto\frac{\sinh s}{s},\qquad s>0$$ is increasing. However, this is clear, because the Taylor series of this function converges everywhere, and it has nonnegative coefficients.

GH from MO
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$\newcommand{\s}{\overset{\text{sgn}}=} \newcommand{\Dx}{\text{Dx}} \newcommand{\logDx}{\text{logDx}} \newcommand{\DlogDx}{\text{DlogDx}} \newcommand{\DDDlogDx}{\text{DDDlogDx}} \newcommand{\DDDDDlogDx}{\text{DDDDDlogDx}} \newcommand{\dif}{\text{dif}} \newcommand{\Ddif}{\text{Ddif}} \newcommand{\R}{\mathbb{R}}$ Let us show that the inequality in question holds for all real $n\ge5$; the cases when $n\in\{1,2,3,4\}$ are verified directly. By a comment of Pietro Mayer, without loss of generality $0<x<1$. We shall reduce the problem to the completely algorithmic problem of checking sign patterns of several polynomials in $n,x$, of total degrees $\le11$. This reduction is done in a few steps:

Step 1: Eliminating $(\frac{1+x}2)^n$: The inequality in question can be rewritten as \begin{equation} u(x):=u_n(x):=n \ln \left(\frac{x^n+1}{x^{n-1}+1}\right) -\ln \left(x^n+1-z^n\right)\ge0, \end{equation} where $z:=z_x:=\frac{1+x}2$. Note that \begin{multline*} u'(x)\frac{x (1+x)}n \left(x^{1-n}+x^n+x+1\right) \left(x^n+1-z^n\right) \\ =\Dx:=\left(n \left(1-x^2\right)+\left(x^{2-n}-1\right) \left(1+x^n\right)\right) z^n-(n-1) \left(1-x^2\right) \left(1+x^n\right), \end{multline*} so that \begin{equation} u'(x)\s\Dx\s\logDx(x), \end{equation} where $\s$ denotes the equality in sign and
\begin{equation} \logDx(x):=\logDx_n(x):=n \ln z-\ln \frac{(n-1) \left(1-x^2\right) \left(1+x^n\right)}{n \left(1-x^2\right)+\left(x^{2-n}-1\right) \left(1+x^n\right)}. \end{equation} Here and in the sequel, $\Dx$, $\logDx$, etc. are atomic, "indivisible" symbols; $\Dx$ refers to the derivative (of $u$) in $x$, $\logDx$ refers to a certain kind of logarithmic modification of $\Dx$, etc. Next, let \begin{multline*} \DlogDx(x):=\DlogDx_n(x):= \\ \logDx'(x)(1-x) (1+x) x^{n-1} \left(1+x^n\right) \left(n \left(1-x^2\right)+\left(x^{2-n}-1\right) \left(1+x^n\right)\right) \\ =n^2 (x-1)^2 (x+1) \left(x-x^n\right) x^{n-2}-2 \left(x^n-1\right) \left(x^n+1\right)^2+\frac{n (x-1) \left(x^n+1\right)^2 \left(x^n+x\right)}{x}. \end{multline*} So, we get a polynomial in $x^n$ of degree $3$ over the field $\R(n,x)$ of all real rational functions in $n,x$.

Step 2: Reducing the degree from $3$ to $2$: Let \begin{multline*} \DDDlogDx(x):= \DlogDx''(x) x^{3 - 3 n}\\ =x^{3-3 n} (n (n x-n+2 x+2) (n^2 x^2-n^2+n x^2+2 n-1) x^{n-3} \\ -2 (n-1) n (x-1) (2 n^2 x^2-2 n^2+n x^2-2 n x+3 n+2 x) x^{2 n-4}+n (3 n-1) (3 n x-3 n-6 x+2) x^{3 n-3}) \\ \s\DlogDx''(x). \end{multline*} Taking the second derivative $\DlogDx''(x)$ of the polynomial $\DlogDx(x)$ in $x^n$ of over $\R(n,x)$ kills the free term of that polynomial. Thus, we get the polynomial $\DDDlogDx(x)$ of degree $2$ in $x^{-n}$ of over $\R(n,x)$.

Step 3: Reducing the degree from $2$ to $1$: Let \begin{equation} \DDDDDlogDx(x):= \frac{\DDDlogDx''(x)}{2 (n - 1) n^2 x^{-3 - 2 n}} = A_n(x) - x^n B_n(x), \end{equation} \begin{equation} A_n(x):=\left(2 n^3+3 n^2-5 n-6\right) x^4+\left(-2 n^3+3 n^2+3 n-2\right) x^3+\left(-2 n^3-n^2+5 n-2\right) x^2+\left(2 n^3-5 n^2+n+2\right) x, \end{equation} \begin{equation} B_n(x):=2 n^3+3 n^2-\left(-2 n^3+5 n^2-n-2\right) x^3-\left(2 n^3+n^2-5 n+2\right) x^2-\left(2 n^3-3 n^2-3 n+2\right) x-5 n-6, \end{equation} so that \begin{equation} \DDDlogDx''(x)\s A_n(x) - x^n B_n(x). \end{equation} Thus, we get the polynomial $\DDDDDlogDx(x)$ of degree $1$ in $x^n$ of over $\R(n,x)$.

Step 4: Reducing the degree from $1$ to $0$:
We can see that (under the conditions $n\ge5$ and $0<x<1$, assumed everywhere here) $B_n(x)>0$. So, $\DDDlogDx''(x)<0$ whenever $A_n(x)\le0$.

Further, let \begin{equation} \dif(x) = \dif_n(x) :=\ln\frac{A_n(x)}{B_n(x)} - n \ln x\s A_n(x) - x^n B_n(x)\s \DDDlogDx''(x) \end{equation} wherever $A_n(x)>0$, and then \begin{multline*} \Ddif(x) = \Ddif_n(x) :=\dif'(x)\frac{A_n(x)B_n(x)}{(n+1)(n-2)} \\ =-4 n^5 (x-1)^4 (x+1)^2+4 n^4 (x-1)^4 (x+1)^2+n^3 (x-1)^2 \left(15 x^4+16 x^3-10 x^2+16 x+15\right) \\ -4 n^2 \left(x^2-1\right)^2 \left(5 x^2+x+5\right)+n \left(-x^6+30 x^5+41 x^4-44 x^3+41 x^2+30 x-1\right) \\ +2 \left(3 x^6-6 x^5-11 x^4-36 x^3-11 x^2-6 x+3\right) \\ \s\dif'(x), \end{multline*} finally getting a polynomial in $n,x$.


Now we need to trace the above steps back:

Looking back at the polynomial $A_n(x)$, (for $x\in(0,1)$) we find that $A_n(x)\le0$ iff $x_1\le x\le x_2$, where $x_1=x_1(n)$ and $x_2=x_2(n)$ are the two roots of $A_n(x)$ in $(0,1)$ such that $x_1<x_2$.

Further, $\Ddif<0$ and hence $\dif'<0$ on $(0,x_1]$; and $\Ddif>0$ and hence $\dif'>0$ on $[x_2,1)$. So, $\dif$ decreases on $(0, x_1]$ and increases on $[x_2, 1)$. So, $\dif$ is $+-$ on $(0, x_1]$ (that is, $\dif$ can switch sign at most once on $(0, x_1]$, and only from $+$ to $-$). Similarly, $\dif$ is $-+$ on $[x_2, 1)$.

But also $\dif(1)=0$. So, actually $\dif<0$ on $[x_2, 1)$.

So, $\DDDlogDx''$ is $+-$ on $(0, x_1]$ and $\DDDlogDx'' < 0$ on $[x_2, 1)$.

Also, $A < 0$ and hence $\DDDlogDx'' < 0$ on $[x_1, x_2]$. So, $\DDDlogDx''$ is $+-$ on $(0, 1)$. So, $\DDDlogDx$ is convex-concave on $(0, 1)$. Also, $\DDDlogDx(1)=0$.

So, $\DDDlogDx$ is $+-+$ on $(0, 1)$. So, $\DlogDx$ is convex-concave-convex on $(0, 1)$. Also, $\DlogDx(1)=\DlogDx'(1)=\DlogDx''(1)=0>-8n(n^2-1)=\DlogDx'''(1)$ and $\DlogDx(0+)=2-n<0$. So, $\DlogDx$ is $-+$; so, $\logDx$ is decreasing-increasing.

Also, $\logDx(1-)=0$. So, $\logDx$ is $+-$, and hence so is $\Dx$ (with $z = \frac{1 + x}2$).

Recalling that $u'(x)\s\Dx$, we see that $u_n(x)$ is increasing-decreasing (in $x\in(0,1)$). Also, $u_n(0)=-\ln(1 - 2^{-n})>0$ and $u_n(1)=0$.

Thus, $u>0$, which concludes the proof.

Iosif Pinelis
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Mathematica confirms that for concrete values of $n$, e.g.

n = 30; ForAll[x,x > 0, ((x^n+1)/(x^(n-1)+1))^n + ((x + 1)/2)^n >= x^n + 1];Resolve[%,Reals]

True

Mathematica fails with it in the general case of an arbitrary positive integer $n$.

user64494
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