80

Reading the autobiography of Richard Feynman, I struck upon the following paragraphs, in which Feynman recall when, as a student of the Princeton physics department, he used to challenge the students of the math department.

I challenged them: "I bet there isn't a single theorem that you can tell me ­­what the assumptions are and what the theorem is in terms I can understand ­­where I can't tell you right away whether it's true or false."
It often went like this: They would explain to me, "You've got an orange, OK? Now you cut the orange into a finite number of pieces, put it back together, and it's as big as the sun. True or false?"
"No holes?"
"No holes."
"Impossible! There ain't no such a thing."
"Ha! We got him! Everybody gather around! It's So­-and­-so's theorem of immeasurable measure!"
Just when they think they've got me, I remind them, "But you said an orange! You can't cut the orange peel any thinner than the atoms."
"But we have the condition of continuity: We can keep on cutting!"
"No, you said an orange, so I assumed that you meant a real orange."
So I always won. If I guessed it right, great. If I guessed it wrong, there was always something I could find in their simplification that they left out.

Forgetting that most of this was probably done as a joke, with what theorem would you have answered to Feynman's challenge?

rtsss
  • 477
  • 24
    Almost anything non-trivial from Combinatorics (assuming the statement requires no simplifications). – Andrei Smolensky Dec 05 '21 at 17:58
  • 6
    (i) Of course, there is no statement about such a real object as an orange that can possibly be a mathematical theorem. (ii) Even if nothing was left out in the statement of the problem, Feynman (or "Feynman") could always have said, before or after his guessing, that he did not (really) understand the terms -- which would be an easy cop-out for him. – Iosif Pinelis Dec 05 '21 at 18:22
  • 61
    (a) 0 is not the sum of three non-zero integer cubes. (b) But 33 is. – Terry Tao Dec 05 '21 at 18:45
  • 1
    @TerryTao Alright, but wasn't (b) proved only in 2019 ? Feynman died in 1988. – rtsss Dec 05 '21 at 18:56
  • 41
    OK, if we are limiting to results before 1988: aperiodic tilings exist. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aperiodic_tiling – Terry Tao Dec 05 '21 at 19:00
  • 3
    @TerryTao Aperiodic tilings are much better. Also because their are geometrical, and thus probably more appealing to a physicist – rtsss Dec 05 '21 at 19:03
  • 4
    Since Penrose is a physicist and he discovered his aperiodic tilings in the 1970s, I suspect there's a good chance Feynman would have heard about them during his career. – KConrad Dec 05 '21 at 19:31
  • 11
    Given Feyman's prowess in solving differential equations, Lewy's example might be another candidate. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lewy%27s_example – Terry Tao Dec 05 '21 at 19:35
  • 6
    I remember someone saying that Feynman was surprised by the Hopf fibration being nontrivial in homotopy. I think the story was that he learned this from Barry Simon. – Ben McKay Dec 05 '21 at 19:40
  • 6
    @BenMcKay Related to this, one could imagine asking Feynman to guess the set of dimensions $d \in {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8}$ for which $d$-dimensional exotic spheres exist. Tell him that with his experience in general relativity the $d=4$ case should be particularly easy for him to guess the answer to. – Terry Tao Dec 05 '21 at 19:54
  • 9
    @TerryTao Feynman had personal experience being stuck on a problem due to his focus on using power series (perturbation theory). His methods to explain superconductivity never worked out and the eventual theory that was formulated by Bardeen, Cooper and Schrieffer (BCS theory) involved energy and temperature gaps behaving like $e^{-2/\lambda}$ and $e^{-1/\lambda}$ as $\lambda \to 0^+$. Such smooth functions can't be analyzed in a useful way with power series at $\lambda = 0$. – KConrad Dec 05 '21 at 19:55
  • 4
    @KConrad Yes, Lewy's example is a famous one where power series analysis gives the wrong answer: the equation can be (locally) solved by power series for any analytic data $F$, but not for smooth data $F$. – Terry Tao Dec 05 '21 at 19:57
  • 14
    Sphere eversion seems like a reasonable candidate to me. – Noah Schweber Dec 05 '21 at 20:19
  • I seem to recall someone responded something like "What is the sign of the tangent of ten to the one millionth power, in radians?" to this question. Was this von Neumann? – John Rognes Dec 05 '21 at 20:19
  • 1
    Many of Hilbert's problems yield good answers to Feynman's challenge. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hilbert%27s_problems –  Dec 05 '21 at 20:21
  • 4
    "I bet there isn't a single theorem that you can tell me ­­what the assumptions are and what the theorem is in terms I can understand ­­where I can't tell you right away whether it's true or false." Why didn't they ask him about unknown things ... Fernat's last theorem (unknown at that time), Goldbach's conjecture, ... – Gerald Edgar Dec 05 '21 at 20:24
  • 2
    @JohnRognes it was Paul Olum. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Paul_Olum. – KConrad Dec 05 '21 at 20:26
  • 2
    @GeraldEdgar then nobody could have given him a definitive reply about whether or not he was right, so they couldn't have really stumped him with such "theorems". – KConrad Dec 05 '21 at 20:30
  • @JohnRognes As the Wikipedia article that Keith Conrad linked to explains, that was in response to a slightly different claim that Feynman had made. – Timothy Chow Dec 05 '21 at 21:01
  • 9
    Explain ZFC and ask if CH is true or false. – Asaf Karagila Dec 05 '21 at 22:01
  • 4
    The same question on MSE might be of interest: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/250/a-challenge-by-r-p-feynman-give-counter-intuitive-theorems-that-can-be-transl – Carmeister Dec 06 '21 at 02:24
  • 9
    I think it's fair to say that by his phrasing, Feynman's pulling a bit of a swindle - by talking about theorems rather than, say, statements, he's trying to get people to think of things that are true and important, while being hard to prove. As is common for Feynman, he's hiding quite a bit of social engineering behind his math (this is not an insult - Feynman was known for his social engineering as well as his math). – user44191 Dec 06 '21 at 02:28
  • 1
    The original Banach-Tarski paradox was perfectly fine except that it was phrased in terms of an orange. Either he knew about the paradox and was deliberately using this to pull a fast one or he gave a "wrong" answer and weaseled out by talking about the physical system. – Kapil Dec 06 '21 at 03:42
  • @Kapil Or maybe he is right in the way that our axiomatic system has a flaw here. (I think Banach-Tarski spun off some research in this direction; if I remember correctly the alternatives might be worse though). – lalala Dec 06 '21 at 10:02
  • 1
    What would the correct answer be for "can you trisect an angle with ruler and compass alone"? If you ask a mathematician, s/he will answer "no, that is not possible". The catch here is the interpretation of the question; it is silently interpreted as "can every angle be trisected with ruler and compass alone" whence the answer is "no". If it is interpreted as "is it possible that an angle can be ..." then the answer is "yes". Without an agreement on the interpretation the question will be undecidable. – Manfred Weis Dec 06 '21 at 10:23
  • @ManfredWeis actually trisection of angle with ruler and compass is possible. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Neusis_construction . It just is not possible with straightedge and compass. – lalala Dec 06 '21 at 10:53
  • @lalala my mistake to say "ruler" when it should hve been "straight-edge", i.e. without markings, but that makes my point more obvious: a mathematical problem can in many cases not be communicated to laypeople in natural language in a simplified form while at the same time preserving the contents of the problem's formal definition. – Manfred Weis Dec 06 '21 at 11:37
  • A circular prison is given. 6 policemen start at the vertices of a hexagon on the border, on which they can move freely, and a prisoner at the center. Can the prisoner escape? All have complete and instantaneous information, and can change their speeds as abruptly as needed, without exceeding speed 1. This comes from a much more general recent MO question. It's fairly easy to see that 4 equally spaced policemen cannot stop the prisoner, but I don't think intuition is much help with 5 or more. – Yaakov Baruch Dec 06 '21 at 13:30
  • This question isn't answerable since Feynman is years dead. Also, it clearly comes as subjective, and it hinges on the phrase "... what the theorem is in terms I [emphasis added] can understand... " Feynman's understanding seems to have been unique. I guess it is marked soft question, but this seems more of a question about a person's understanding and language than mathematics. – Doug Spoonwood Dec 06 '21 at 15:11
  • Out of interest, why did he do this? Was it for 'sport': to improve both his own knowledge and reasoning (and that of his students)? - a gladiatorial arena of (intellectually) sparring physicists!? – stevec Dec 06 '21 at 15:35
  • 3
    @stevec We can't know for sure, but if you accept my interpretation of the challenge, Feynman might have been looking for ideas that (1) are well known to mathematicians but not so well known to physicists and (2) dramatically violate physical intuition. He might have been wondering, "Is my physical intuition seriously flawed in some way? I wonder if those mathematicians have something to teach me in this regard." – Timothy Chow Dec 06 '21 at 16:08
  • In those days topology was the big thing. I still remember a guy sitting on the couch, thinking very hard, and another guy standing in front of him, saying, "And therefore such ­and­ such is true." "Why is that?" the guy on the couch asks. "It's trivial! It's trivial!" the standing guy says, and he rapidly reels off a series of logical steps: "First you assume thus ­and ­so, then we have Kerchoff's this­ and­ that; then there's Waffenstoffer's Theorem, and we substitute this and construct that. -- cont – Yaakov Baruch Dec 06 '21 at 16:50
  • Now you put the vector which goes around here and then thus ­and­ so. . ." The guy on the couch is struggling to understand all this stuff, which goes on at high speed for about fifteen minutes! Finally the standing guy comes out the other end, and the guy on the couch says, "Yeah, yeah. It's trivial." We physicists were laughing, trying to figure them out. We decided that "trivial" means "proved." So we joked with the mathematicians: "We have a new theorem ­­ that mathematicians can prove only trivial theorems, because every theorem that's proved is trivial." – Yaakov Baruch Dec 06 '21 at 16:50
  • That was Feynman. So perhaps what the OP quote is simply Feynman's way to say that mathematicians (especially topologists), back then were a happy and enthusiastic lot, and the students were eager to share there insights into the proper foundations of new fields. – Yaakov Baruch Dec 06 '21 at 16:56
  • a^n + b^n = c^n has no integer solutions for n > 2? – Dikran Marsupial Dec 06 '21 at 19:00
  • 3
    @stevec I am not sure, but his views on pure mathematics were a bit controversial and I wouldn't take them that seriously. For example, he suggested that most students should not learn basic set theory notation as it is not used in physics. – Hollis Williams Dec 06 '21 at 21:30
  • 2
    Personally I think the challenge looks like academic snobbery/intellectual insecurity/showing off, and I would have responded by suggesting he grew up - there is more to life than being clever (as he discovered later). – Dikran Marsupial Dec 07 '21 at 09:26
  • @ypercubeᵀᴹ : And the correct answer is? ... We're asked about theorems (at the time Feynman was in school), so the results must be known at the time the question is asked, which isn't even the case today... – Eric Towers Dec 07 '21 at 15:42
  • It's nice that one of the stipulations has to be that he can understand the theorem. If you limit your questions to only the things I know, there's no question I wouldn't be able to answer either. – Issel Dec 07 '21 at 18:13
  • @EricTowers apologies. I was thinking about conjectures and not theorems. Removing that comment. – ypercubeᵀᴹ Dec 07 '21 at 19:19
  • 2
    @EricTowers the question setup though is weird: "I bet there isn't a single theorem that you can tell me ­­what the assumptions are and what the theorem is in terms I can understand ­­where I can't tell you right away whether it's true or false." A theorem is by definition true so when Feynman was talking about false theorems is at least ambiguous what he was meaning. – ypercubeᵀᴹ Dec 07 '21 at 20:21
  • @ypercubeᵀᴹ My assumption is that Feynman left himself the option of saying "true" and then quibbling: "ah, but I asked you to state a theorem, so if what you stated was false, then you broke the rules!" – kaya3 Dec 08 '21 at 04:53
  • With questions. - "Without an agreement on the interpretation the question will be undecidable." – Mazura Dec 08 '21 at 11:18
  • 1
    @YaakovBaruch For your policemen, Feynman says "yes, the prisoner can easily escape" because you didn't specify a regular hexagon. – kaya3 Dec 08 '21 at 18:23
  • @kaya3 Haha! You are right! And the answer is right anyway, too. – Yaakov Baruch Dec 08 '21 at 19:53
  • "But you said an orange! You can't cut the orange peel any thinner than the atoms." - What about subatomic particles? – Peter Wacken Feb 26 '22 at 21:31

22 Answers22

76

There's a certain gaming/sporting aspect to Feynman's challenge that works in his favor. First of all, as phrased, the challenge gives him a 50/50 shot at being right even if he guesses randomly. Also, if you present a statement which seems too obviously true then Feynman could reason that you wouldn't have chosen that statement if the obvious answer were correct.

With those caveats, I present some proposals below. I have tried to gravitate toward problems involving physical intuition, since IMO fooling Feynman's physical intuition carries bonus points.

  1. Is sphere eversion (without creasing) possible? (Edit: I see now that Noah Schweber already suggested this one.) This is my favorite, and the only flaw is that a real physical surface can't pass through itself, so the question isn't quite a physical one.

  2. Is there a convex solid of uniform density with exactly one stable equilibrium and one unstable equilibrium? This problem postdates Feynman's life and maybe he would have guessed correctly, but I would be impressed.

  3. Does the regular $n$-gon have the largest area among all $n$-gons with unit diameter? Tricky because the answer is yes if $n$ is odd but false if $n$ is even and $n\ge 6$.

  4. Is there a closed planar convex shape with two equichordal points? This one is good if you suspect that Feynman might reason that the "obvious" answer (no) can't be correct or else you wouldn't be asking. "No" is correct but the proof is highly nontrivial.

  5. Does every $d$-dimensional polytope have a realization in which all its vertices have rational coordinates? Explaining the precise statement of this result is a little tricky, and it has the flaw that the weirdness doesn't kick in until $d=4$, but otherwise this one is really nice IMO.


EDIT: There has been some discussion in the comments about whether the presence of irrational numbers in #5 above means it refers to some mathematical abstraction that is not "physically realizable." Here is an easier-to-understand (though less spectacular) question that captures the essential issue. Consider the Perles configuration of nine green points in the figure below. If the outer pentagon is a mathematically perfect regular pentagon, then at least some of the nine points have to have irrational coordinates. No big surprise there.

But now consider this. Suppose I don't require that the pentagon be a perfectly regular pentagon; suppose I allow you to redraw the figure, re-positioning the nine points in any way you like, as long as you preserve all the collinearities (i.e., points that are collinear in the original diagram must remain collinear in your new picture). Can you arrange for all nine points to have rational coordinates? The answer, which I find surprising, is no.

As far as physical intuition is concerned, what this example shows is that the seemingly physical concept of "collinearity of points in the plane" (suitably idealized of course) already forces irrational numbers upon us. In contrast, if you point out that a right-angled triangle with two sides of length 1 has a hypotenuse of $\sqrt{2}$, then a physicist could object that physical angles and lengths are never infinitely precise, and that you can create an arbitrarily close approximation using rational numbers. In the Perles configuration, we are not stipulating any distances or angles precisely; we are only stipulating that certain points be exactly collinear, and it turns out that this idealization already requires us to introduce irrational numbers.

Timothy Chow
  • 78,129
  • 7
    Reading some of the other answers, I propose the following criterion for a good challenge: The wrong answer looks significantly more plausible than the right answer. So challenges that clearly are random coin flips unless you do a lot of calculation (is the billionth digit of $\pi$ even or odd?) are not very good. – Timothy Chow Dec 06 '21 at 04:02
  • 2
    Great answer! The question doesn't say that, but my sense is that Feynman may have had in mind more geometrical, topological areas of math, rather than number theory and such. – Yaakov Baruch Dec 06 '21 at 05:39
  • 2
    There is no such thing as a physical surface; the term "physical surface" is a hypothetical object that is represented/approximated/idealized by a mathematical object – Manfred Weis Dec 06 '21 at 11:43
  • @YaakovBaruch Yes, one possible interpretation of the challenge is, are there easily stated yes/no questions in $d$-dimensional geometry or topology with $d\le 3$ (or maybe $d=4$) for which the "obvious conjecture" is false, and false for "non-pathological" reasons? (We might also allow cases where the obvious conjecture is true, but for "interesting" reasons.) If Feynman was impressed by the Hopf fibration, that would lend some weight to this interpretation. – Timothy Chow Dec 06 '21 at 15:59
  • 4
    @ManfredWeis Spoken like a true Platonist! A fictionalist would say that there is no such thing as a mathematical surface; only physical surfaces actually exist, and a mathematical surface is a fictional idealization. – Timothy Chow Dec 06 '21 at 17:33
  • 7
    The biggest little polygon problem is a great example, but an example like #5 is in a different category because it depends on the distinction between rational and irrational numbers. Feynman's example about the orange suggests that he has what is to a physicist a natural aversion to questions like this that sound like they're about a physically realizable surface, but in fact can't be realized by any possible physical process. –  Dec 06 '21 at 18:25
  • 1
    @BenCrowell I agree. Still, what's interesting about the non-rational polytopes is that it seems at first glance that they "should" be physically realizable, and it's not at all obvious why irrational numbers are necessary. To be honest, I myself don't have a good intuition for "why" these polytopes are not rational. – Timothy Chow Dec 06 '21 at 19:05
  • 2
    @TimothyChow: I guess I don't see why this would be any more surprising than the fact that the hypotenuse of a 45-45-90 triangle is irrational in relation to the legs. Once we've established that irrational ratios are a natural result of constructions in the plane, it seems even more likely intuitively that they would occur in three dimensions. –  Dec 06 '21 at 19:42
  • 1
    @TimothyChow: it seems at first glance that they "should" be physically realizable I think we're working from different intuitions about what "physically realizable" means. I would consider a 45-45-90 triangle to be physically realizable in the sense that we can build one in physical reality to arbitrary precision, but the cost and effort just increase with the desired precision. But the fact that the ratio of the sides is irrational is something that can never be verified by physical measurement, even in principle. –  Dec 06 '21 at 19:45
  • 2
    @BenCrowell The point is that one intuitively expects that it should be possible to perturb an irrational representation to a rational one without changing the combinatorial type. The combinatorial type is a "large-scale" feature. There is no requirement to preserve lengths or angles, so why can't I just jiggle the vertices a tiny amount to ensure that the coordinates are rational? That's always possible for simplicial polytopes, for example, and it's always possible in 3 dimensions. What's weird is that something funny starts to happen in 4 dimensions. – Timothy Chow Dec 06 '21 at 23:46
  • 3
    @TimothyChow: I like your "wrong answer vs. right answer" criterion. Speaking as a physicist, the "biggest little polygon" example is particularly good because it leads me into the physicist's trap of "the symmetric answer is the most plausible answer". – Michael Seifert Dec 07 '21 at 19:04
  • The exercise for Feynman seems like "find a case where you know one answer if you vary one unstated-but-assumed constant". So he knows that 1 & 2 are trivially possible if we increase the number of dimensions, so can answer "Yes", even without knowing they're possible in 3D, as he could say "you never said in 3 dimensions". – Dewi Morgan Dec 08 '21 at 19:26
  • @DewiMorgan I actually don't think that Feynman would try to game the question in quite that way. I think he's after physical intuition, which is why he rejected Banach-Tarski as being irrelevant. – Timothy Chow Dec 08 '21 at 19:54
  • @TimothyChow My point was not "dimensions". We know he gamed the question. My point is, OPTIMAL gaming is not, as others here are suggesting, guessing which is truly correct, but rather finding an ambiguity, an unstated constant, which makes "yes" or "no" a sure thing. "Guessing right" is only a very secondary concern after picking a case which you can turn into a sure thing through ambiguity. – Dewi Morgan Dec 08 '21 at 20:26
  • @DewiMorgan Sure, but my belief is that Feynman wasn't gaming just for the sake of gaming. I think he primarily wanted to know if mathematicians had any interesting physical insights to provide. The game is just a conceit for trying to elicit those insights if they exist. – Timothy Chow Dec 08 '21 at 22:20
49

Can you hear the shape of a drum?

Easy to understand problem for a physicist, with a non-trivial answer given by Gordon, Webb and Wolpert in 1990.

Eigentime
  • 141
  • 5
    I think this is the best. It is basically a physics question with a non trivial solution. Although an affirmative answer would have been more surprising (to me). – lalala Dec 06 '21 at 10:06
  • 7
    @lalala Right. I thought of this one too but rejected it since I imagined Feynman would have immediately guessed that the answer is no. – Timothy Chow Dec 06 '21 at 11:50
  • 2
    A possibly better question: Can you hear the difference between a square and a circular drum? (The answer to this one is yes) – Wojowu Dec 06 '21 at 14:47
  • 1
    This is an awesome question to Feynman the drummer! – Michael Dec 06 '21 at 19:47
  • 10
    This is too easy if you are gaming the questions. Immediately answer no. If the answer is no, you are right! (and it turns out that you are right in the general case) If the answer is yes, listen for a while to the explanation and then say "But you said hear the shape! So I assumed you meant hear with my ears, and my sense of pitch is not that good." It's basically the same as "I assumed you meant an actual orange". – Matt Hastings Dec 06 '21 at 20:20
  • 7
    You could also game the question the other way. Immediately answer yes. When you are told that the answer is no, listen for a while to the explanation and say "But these shapes are very complicated. When you said a drum, I assumed you meant a real drum. You can't make the boundary conditions of the drum finer than the atoms, and then I bet you can't realize it." Actually, is there a form of theorem where the boundary can only be realized to some precision and you want the sound of the drum to be statistically indistinguishable? – Matt Hastings Dec 06 '21 at 20:56
  • @Wojowu I think this is too easy though, physicists know that changing boundary conditions for a theory can drastically change the conclusions drawn about that theory. – Hollis Williams Dec 06 '21 at 21:23
  • Warning about this question type: Feynman actually played (circular) drums (after he was a student). Example: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2Ks8gsK22PA – Eric Towers Dec 07 '21 at 15:16
  • 1
    @MattHastings I'm not sure with gaming the question "the other way." The prototypical examples in $2d$ are polygons with a finite number of sides; I feel the boundary is not too complicated or wiggly to realize. – user196574 Dec 07 '21 at 23:57
  • 1
    Love this mentioned! Also fairly sure he'd appreciate it even if he'd gotten it wrong. – Lodinn Dec 08 '21 at 03:58
29

There are six Platonic solids in 4 dimensions.

If you have never thought about this problem before, I think it's almost impossible to deduce the truth of this statement immediately, as Feynman sought to do.

Yly
  • 946
  • 9
  • 22
25

Here are two questions, and both are about math that was known long before Feynman passed away.

  1. Explain to him what unique factorization into irreducibles means (including the ambiguity from multiplication by invertible elements, like the nonzero constants in polynomials over $\mathbf R$) and what a "quadratic number system" $\mathbf Z[\sqrt{n}]$ is, where $n$ is not a perfect square. Tell him $\mathbf Z[\sqrt{n}]$ has unique factorization into irreducibles when $n = 2$ and 3, but not when $n = 5$. Now we're ready for the questions: ask him one after the other about whether or not there is unique factorization in $\mathbf Z[\sqrt{n}]$ for $n = 6$ (yes), then for $n = 7$ (yes), then for $n = 8$ (no), then for $n = 10$ (no), and so on. It's the same question for each $n$, so there's no issue of him not understanding the question after he deals with the first few. Note the question for each $n$ has a definite yes/no answer, even though it is still an open problem to show infinitely often (for $n > 0$) there is unique factorization. If $\mathbf Z[\sqrt{n}]$ is not the full ring of integers of $\mathbf Q(\sqrt{n})$ then it does not have unique factorization, and if it is the full ring of integers of $\mathbf Q(\sqrt{n})$ then a table of class numbers will indicate whether or not $\mathbf Z[\sqrt{n}]$ has unique factorization. There is no mathematical or physical intuition that can help someone answer this question correctly right away for each $n$, so he'd eventually be wrong and not be able to "explain" his wrong answer. Let's keep in mind that his constraint was that the problem had to be expressed in terms he could understand, not that it has to be about a part of math that appeals to him (this addresses a point made in the comments above).

  2. If $n > 1$ is not a perfect square, does each equation $x^2 - ny^2 = 1$ have a solution in nonzero integers $x$ and $y$? Depending on what he says to that, maybe ask him about $x^3 - ny^3 = 1$ always having a solution in nonzero integers when $n$ is not a perfect cube. Or change to "infinitely many integral solutions" for those two kinds of equations.

KConrad
  • 49,546
  • 2
    Ah, yeah, the Pell's equation (units theorem for real quadratic fields) is an excellent example, a first instance of the irregularity of number-theoretic things. :) – paul garrett Dec 05 '21 at 19:29
  • 2
    Although this response is technically correct, I feel that it is not quite in the spirit of Feynman's challenge, because morally speaking, you're presenting a parametrized family of theorems rather than a single theorem. The challenge is "too easy" if we're allowed to ask Feynman to compute $f(n)$ for $n=1,2,3,\ldots$ for an arbitrary hard (Boolean) function $f$ of our choosing. – Timothy Chow Dec 05 '21 at 21:20
  • 1
    @TimothyChow then you could ask him a specific case: does $\mathbf Z[\sqrt{79}]$ have unique factorization? (answer: no, the class number is 3.) Or pick a Mordell equation: is there a perfect square and perfect cube that differ by 1989? (No, but I admit I don't know when that was settled.) By 1992? (yes: $y^2 - x^3 = 1992$ for $(x,y) = (14833, 1806523)$. – KConrad Dec 05 '21 at 21:56
21

Exactly one of the numbers, $2^{11213}-1,2^{11239}-1$ is prime. Which one?

Gerry Myerson
  • 39,024
  • What is the answer, or where should I look for an answer :) – Amr Dec 06 '21 at 08:32
  • 6
    @Amr, if you got any mail from the Math Dept at U Illinois in the late 1960s, you would have seen it was postmarked with "$2^{11213}-1$ is prime". – Gerry Myerson Dec 06 '21 at 08:35
  • Not a true or false question. "I bet there isn't a single theorem that you can tell me ­­what the assumptions are and what the theorem is in terms I can understand ­­where I can't tell you right away whether it's true or false." – Doug Spoonwood Dec 06 '21 at 15:13
  • 3
    @DougSpoonwood It's trivial to turn this into a true/false question. Assumption: exactly one of $2^{11213}- 1$ and $2^{11239} - 1$ are prime. True or false: $2^{11213} - 1$ is prime and $2^{11239} - 1$ is not. – Nuclear Hoagie Dec 06 '21 at 17:10
  • @NuclearHoagie Why exactly did you ask if the first number was prime instead of the second? Seems like it implies two true or false questions equally so to me. – Doug Spoonwood Dec 06 '21 at 20:03
  • 1
    @DougSpoonwood It doesn't matter. According to the assumption, the answer to one implies the answer to the other, so there is only one independent question. Regardless, any multiple choice question can be encoded as a series of true/false questions. If the premise is that X belongs to exactly one of sets A, B, or C, Feynman should be able to say if it's true that X belongs to A, or if it belongs to B, or if it belongs to C individually, ultimately answering "which one" as a series of true/false questions, which is fair game for Feynman's claim. – Nuclear Hoagie Dec 06 '21 at 20:29
  • A theorem is a true-or-false question. I propose the theorem that the number of primes below 1 million is even. I can prove it or disprove it (even though it is a bit lengthy). – Florian F Dec 06 '21 at 20:43
  • Pari GP makes the magic here ---> gp > isprime(2^11239-1) time = 438 ms. %1 = 0 (So it is not) then 2^11213-1 is prime – Jorge Zuniga Dec 21 '21 at 02:36
20

Every positive integer is a sum of fourth powers: trivially, $1+1+\dotsb+1$. Of course we can use fewer summands. For example, $79$ is a sum of $4$ $16$’s and $15$ $1$’s, needing $19$ summands. Is there any positive integer that needs more than $19$? The answer is no, shown in 1986 by Balasubramanian et al.

Zach Teitler
  • 6,197
  • 3
    Oh, forgot to be tricky. Okay, 15 requires 15 summands, 31 requires 16, clearly it goes up more, but does it get past, say, 20? – Zach Teitler Dec 05 '21 at 23:47
18

Assuming that Feynman understands integers and limits:

Let $S$ be a set of positive integers such that $S, 2S, 3S$ are disjoint. Then the upper density

$$\limsup_{N \to \infty} \frac{\# \{ S \cap [1, N]\}}{N}$$

of $S$ is at most $\frac{108735}{117936}$, and this bound is sharp.

True or false?

Nate River
  • 4,832
  • 26
    I guess Feynman (Nobel Prize in Physics 1965) understood integers and limits. See in particular "Feynman path integral". – GH from MO Dec 06 '21 at 04:35
  • 4
    Is it true or false? (Maybe Feynman would have known, but I don't. If you would have asked me to guess, I would have guessed 6/11.) – Will Brian Dec 06 '21 at 14:30
  • 5
    @GHfromMO Considering how quickly any naive formulation of the path integral gets you to something physically useful yet mathematically ill posed, I am not sure if knowing too much about limits might not actually be detrimental in understanding it... – mlk Dec 06 '21 at 14:32
  • 1
    I think Feynman also did very well on the Putnam, so he would know a bit about integers. – Ben McKay Dec 06 '21 at 20:37
  • 4
    @Will Brian It is false, but the actual answer is very close to what’s written. I will ask the person who sent me the result whether he is okay with me sharing his answer and proof of the result! – Nate River Dec 06 '21 at 21:19
  • Feynman and Schwinger both invented techniques for evaluating loop integrals which can be useful even in pure mathematics (see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Feynman_parametrization), so obviously they both understood integers and limits very well. – Hollis Williams Dec 06 '21 at 21:25
  • 6
    Yes, the comment was tongue in cheek haha – Nate River Dec 07 '21 at 02:57
  • 2
    I think he'd suspect the changed fraction, if only because of the common factor (both numerator and denominator are divisible by 3). – user44191 Dec 12 '21 at 04:16
  • Ah damn thats true, Feynman still wins then. – Nate River Dec 12 '21 at 11:24
  • Is there a reason for using a fraction that is not in lowest terms? – Michael Hardy Dec 25 '21 at 01:57
  • 2
    @Michael Hardy Ah well, I modified the result just slightly to make it false. Inadvertly created a non lowest terms fraction. – Nate River Dec 25 '21 at 03:05
  • @NateRiver : ok, I'm convinced. – Michael Hardy Dec 25 '21 at 03:06
  • @NateRiver : I suppose I should have suspected that this is false as stated, precisely for that reason. – Michael Hardy Dec 25 '21 at 20:25
18

Imagine a brick of weight $1$ trapped between a wall and a brick of weight $100^n$, coming at it with some speed. Assume no friction and elastic collisions. True or false: the number of collisions between the bricks and the smaller brick with the wall is the sequence of the first $n+1$ digits of $\pi$.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jsYwFizhncE

Michael
  • 2,175
  • 3
    This video is absolutely amazing. – Owen Allen Dec 10 '21 at 17:54
  • @Nucleon, I love 3b1b videos; he does an excellent job explaining things simply and clearly, and he chooses the most beautiful math connections for his videos. – Michael Dec 15 '21 at 22:36
  • This is still open right? – Ville Salo Dec 21 '21 at 11:40
  • @VilleSalo, the video goes over the solution. 3b1b has quite a few very beautiful videos about unusual results. The core of this solution is to trace the movements of the bricks in the configuration space, the axis corresponding to the bricks position; not too difficult in the hindsight, when you know the result, but completely unexpected beforehand. – Michael Dec 21 '21 at 16:33
  • 2
    I think the solution assumes that $\pi$'s decimal expansion doesn't have massive conspiracies though. – Ville Salo Dec 21 '21 at 17:09
  • I think 3b1b is great, and that the video doesn't say anything false, but there's an issue if too many digits of $\pi$ are $9$s, this is discussed I'm Galperin's paper, see the notes in the comments of the video. – Ville Salo Dec 21 '21 at 17:33
  • @VilleSalo, I don't understand, what does the distribution of $9$s in $\pi$ have anything to do with this? – Michael Dec 21 '21 at 19:46
  • 1
    Have you looked at the notes in comments and/or sections 9 and 10 in Galperin's paper? – Ville Salo Dec 21 '21 at 22:34
  • I didn't before; just looked up this one. I wasn't aware of this detail. – Michael Dec 22 '21 at 00:54
12

In terms of a math problem that a lay person* could understand but have completely the wrong intuition about, rather than anything involving deep mathematics, I might choose something from elementary probability: e.g., the Monty Hall Problem or Simpson's Paradox. As the Wikipedia link says, even Erdös gave the wrong answer to the Monty Hall Problem. And Simpson's Paradox seems at first blush to contradict basic probabilistic facts like linearity of expectation. These are just two examples; the point is that our brains seem to have a lot of (not always correct) probabilistic intuition hard-wired into them.

*Which of course Feynman was not, though he was also not a mathematician.

Sam Hopkins
  • 22,785
  • 1
    I considered this kind of thing but decided that it wasn't in the spirit of Feynman's challenge to state a theorem, rather than a puzzle or a problem. But if we allow it, I'd nominate the puzzle in Gil Kalai's 30th Test Your Intuition. You throw a normal 6-sided die until you get 6. What is the expected number of throws (including the throw giving 6), conditioned on the event that all throws gave even numbers? – Timothy Chow Dec 06 '21 at 03:45
  • 2
    The Monty Hall problem is rather difficult to state precisely. A lot of statements of it (perhaps the majority) would allow Feynman to say either "yes, you should switch" or "no, there's no advantage to switching," at his whim, and then explain the flaw in that statement that allowed him to answer it that way. – Tanner Swett Dec 06 '21 at 10:41
  • 1
    In particular, a lot of statements of the problem merely describe a sequence of events and fail to explain what Monty's general behavior is. In such statements, the correct answer could be anything from "switching is a guaranteed win" to "switching is a guaranteed loss." – Tanner Swett Dec 06 '21 at 10:43
  • It's much easier to understand the Monty Hall result if you regard the guest as choosing one of two doors that does not hide the car, the host choosing the other. But even with that in mind, it doesn't help my intuition when faced with the original statement of the problem. – Neil_UK Dec 06 '21 at 19:27
9

Equip the sphere $\mathbb{S}^2$ with any Riemannian metric, then it must have at least three closed geodesics by the theorem of three geodesics. I believe these are terms which Feynman should understand as he has to know General Relativity.

As for the Banach Tarski paradox, I think the mathematicicans really got him but he doesn't want to admit it :D His response about a real oragne means that he is really challenging the mathematicians to tell him a physical fact he didn't know and not a mathematical fact he didn't know :)

Amr
  • 1,025
  • 6
  • 14
  • 1
    If I were asked how many closed geodesics a Riemannian metric on the sphere has, at minimum, I would guess the ellipsoid, the only surface for which I can immediate guess the geodesics and for which the number is smaller than for the sphere, must give the right answer. I think Feynman would get that one right. But you might wonder if the answer is the same for Riemannian metric and for Finsler metrics, and then I think he would probably get it wrong. – Ben McKay Dec 06 '21 at 17:38
  • @BenMcKay I agree. – Amr Dec 07 '21 at 03:24
8

Claim 1: It is possible to write a program which decides whether any other computer program will ever finish running. (This is the halting problem).

It can't. Can be proved using a diagonal argument.

By the Riemann integral, I mean the integral for all continuous functions from $[0,1]$ to $\mathbb R$, which we can prove always exists.

Claim 2: The Riemann integral is computable.

It is computable!

Claim 3: Finding an eigenvector of a positive-definite symmetric matrix is computable.

It's not!

In conclusion:

See how many of those you got right.

wlad
  • 4,823
  • Although properly explaining what computability in the present context means, I think those make for some fine examples. A simpler and, I think, an even more surprising example is the fact that finding derivatives (or even determining differentiability in the first place) is not a computable problem. – Wojowu Dec 06 '21 at 14:42
  • 1
    @Wojowu This is subjective but I find the uncomputability of differentiation not too impressive, as differentiation is defined by a limit, and one shouldn't expect a limit to be computable. The halting problem provides some intuition that "infinitary" problems are not solvable by computers. The Riemann integral example shows that some "infinitary" problems are solvable by computers, contradicting one's intuition. That doesn't make such a positive computability result practical though. – wlad Dec 06 '21 at 14:57
  • 3
    "...and one shouldn't expect a limit to be computable" Well, I certainly would have expected limits to be computable, had I not known any better! – Wojowu Dec 06 '21 at 15:16
  • @Wojowu Let $T$ be a Turing machine. Let $u_n(T) = \begin{cases}1, &\text{if $T$ has terminated before the $n$th step} \ 0, & \text{otherwise} \end{cases}$. The limit $\lim_{n \to \infty} u_n(T)$ always exists, but is not computable in general on pain of solving the halting problem. I think upon realising this, most people would reflexively conclude that integration is not computable along with differentiation, as those are a very general class of limits. – wlad Dec 06 '21 at 15:26
  • @Wojowu And to really throw a spanner in the works, differentiation of differentiable functions from $\mathbb C$ to $\mathbb C$ is actually computable, even when those functions are described only via Turing machines. No information is needed about those functions except a description of a Type Two Turing Machine that can compute them, and an assurance that those functions have derivatives (without saying what they are). The derivatives can then be computed from this information. Exercise: Using the Cauchy Integral Formula and computability of Riemann integration, prove this, – wlad Dec 06 '21 at 15:32
  • @ogogmad Do these answers remain the same for the Blum-Shub-Smale model of computation? But maybe the BSS model is the "wrong" model for this type of question. – Timothy Chow Dec 06 '21 at 17:43
  • Got a better reference than wikipedia for the computability of integration? Since some integrals are not even well-defined, I can only assume a big portion of additional assumptions are left out and there is no direct reference on the wiki site. @ogogmad – WorldSEnder Dec 06 '21 at 18:11
  • 3
    @WorldSEnder This would do it. https://link.springer.com/book/10.1007/978-3-642-56999-9 . There are no additional assumptions. The functions which you're integrating are represented as programs on a Type Two Turing Machine (the subject of the book I've linked to). Those functions are all automatically continuous. The integral of a continuous function $f : [0,1] \to \mathbb R$ always exists, as I pointed out – wlad Dec 06 '21 at 18:21
  • To avoid getting into computability issues, it would be easier to pose as a problem some statement for which the answer is "known", but hard (not impossible) to compute. For example a typical RSA type challenge in 1962 would be to ask for the factors of a product of two 32-bit primes. – Kapil Dec 08 '21 at 04:13
  • @Kapil That wouldn't answer the question. It would also be ugly and meaningless – wlad Dec 08 '21 at 09:52
  • @ogogmad The neat answer was the one that was given to Feynman in his time. He wanted to win at all costs. So "ugly and meaningless" is fine as long as it wins! See the answer I have posted. It has a high probability of success. – Kapil Dec 08 '21 at 14:25
  • Is integration also computable for computable functions $\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ (instead of $[0, 1] \to \mathbb{R}$)? It seems like I can think of a function $\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ which is computable, but whose integral is uncomputable. (Maybe I should post a question asking about it?) – Tanner Swett Sep 22 '22 at 19:44
7

Can every solvable position of the 2x2x2 Rubik's Cube be solved in fewer than 12 moves?

Answer: Yes, first computed in 1981.

Ben
  • 151
6
  1. "Your job is coloring maps. You can't color two countries which touch each other along an edge the same color, but if they touch at a point it's ok if they are the same color. You have only $N$ different colors, can you color every possible map?" Ask this question for various $N$ to see if they can figure out $N=4$ suffices. Now, the kicker: "So, someone comes to you with a map drawn on the surface of a torus. How many colors do you need?" Actually I think the answer to the second question was proven before the answer to the first was (and both dates are later than the story, alas), but I bet a lot more people know the answer to the first.

  2. I thought I had a great question, but then I realized how to wiggle out. The question was something like "You are going on a spy mission. At some point, after collecting all the information, you'll radio it back to us. You'll get a lot of information, and it will take $10^6$ letters to write it all down. Of course, in advance we will agree on some code so that the enemy can't learn what you say. Unfortunately, you won't be able to hear anything from us, and because of noise, for each letter you send there is only a 50% chance we get that letter, independent of the chance we get any other letter. So, roughly how many letters do you need to send to ensure that we have at least a 99% chance of getting your whole message perfectly?" This is being a bit bold as a question, because the answer involves entropy and a physicist might be able to get a reasonable guess at it, but statistical physicists do better at this kind of question than high energy, so I'll go with it. But, the wiggle out is that potentially after explaining the solution, one can just say "but I don't have any way of performing those calculations! A computer capable of doing that would take up an entire room! And you said I was a spy!" After all, this was a long time ago...

6

The Sharkovskii's theorem may be used to generate questions with hard to guess answers for whom is not aware of the theorem.

Let $f : [0,1] \rightarrow [0,1]$ be a continuous function.

Question 1: assume $f$ has a periodic point of period 7. Does it have a periodic point of period 9?

Question 2: assume $f$ has a periodic point of period 6. Does it have a periodic point of period 111?

Question 3: assume $f$ has a periodic point of period 14. Does it have a periodic point of period 12?

Question 4: assume $f$ has a periodic point of period 3. Does it have a periodic point of period 31415?

Question 5: assume $f$ has a periodic point of period 20. Does it have a periodic point of period 66?

And so on. You probably guessed them all right only if you already knew about Sharkovskii's order.The result was proven in 1964 but only became widely known in the late seventies in the USA after the related work by Li and Yorke. So Richard Feynman was probably not aware of it.

coudy
  • 18,537
  • 5
  • 74
  • 134
  • Li & Yorke proved period three implies all periods, but I don't think their paper had the full Sarkovskii order result. – Gerry Myerson Feb 03 '23 at 03:04
  • 1
    @Myerson Indeed. I edited my post accordingly. Without providing any hint at the answers to the questions. – coudy Feb 03 '23 at 10:16
4

The Continuum Hypothesis. Make it into either a positive or negative assertion and let him decide whether it is true or false!

Igor Khavkine
  • 20,710
4

I have read that Feynman had trouble believing that the P vs. NP problem was even an open conjecture.

So perhaps a meta-question that might be hard for Feynman to wiggle out of would be along the lines of

  • True or False: there is a problem that is known to be in NP but known not to be in P, or
  • There is a problem that is known to be in NP but known not to be in CoNP, or even simpler
  • It is known that TSP cannot be solved in polynomial time.
Mark S
  • 2,143
4

I guess with combinatorics and number theory it's too easy...

Topology/geometry:

Every map $S^3\to S^2$ is homotopic to a constant. True/False? (But probably Feynman knew about the Hopf map)

There are orientable 3-manifolds which are not boundaries of compact 4-manifolds. True/False? Same question for 4-manifolds.

Two differentiable.structures on $\mathbb R^4$ are diffeomorphic. True/False? Same question for $\mathbb R^5$.

Analysis:

The partial sums of the Fourier series of a continuous function on the circle converge uniformly. True/False? Same question for $L^1$ functions, with convergence in $L^1$.

There exist $C^1$ isometric embeddings $S^2\hookrightarrow\mathbb R^3$ whose image has diameter less than $\pi$. True/False?

Mizar
  • 3,096
3
  1. The Frobenius Conjecture:

Let $G$ be a finite group, let $n$ be a divisor of the order of $G$, and assume that the set $H$ of $n$th roots of unity in $G$ has size $n$. Then $H$ is a subgroup of $G$.

I think Feynman would have understood the assumption and the statement of this theorem, but its proof uses the Classification of Finite Simple Groups, and I think it isn’t intuitively obvious, at least not to me, that $H$ should be a subgroup or why it should be a subgroup — it seems almost a “coincidence”.

  1. Tutte's Planar Embedding Theorem, rephrased as follows:

Let $G$ be a $3$-connected planar graph, and let $F$ be a face of $G$. Realize $G$ as rubber balls (vertices) connected by springs (edges) with spring-constant $1$. Place $G$ on a wooden surface, and nail the vertices in $F$ to the wood to form a circle, large in relation to $G$ (say, the radius is more than all the balls placed in a long line). Assume negligible friction between the wood surface and the balls. Under the force of the springs, $G$ will settle into a planar embedding.

  • 2
    For 1, I'm assuming "$n$th roots of unity" refers to $n$-torsion points. In the statement one should also assume $|H|=n$ (otherwise elements of order $2$ in $S_3$ form a counterexample) – Wojowu Dec 07 '21 at 10:02
  • 1
    @Wojowu Solutions to $x^n = 1$. – Daniel Moskovich Dec 07 '21 at 10:58
  • The formulation of Frobenius conjecture here is quite different from the formulation in the Wikipedia article. As far as I can tell, the statement in the answer is trivial: the set of $n$th roots of unity is definable, hence invariant under all automorphisms (actually, even endomorphisms); i.e., the subgroup of $G$ they generate is fully characteristic, and a fortiori normal. In particular, if $n$th roots of unity form a group by themselves, this group is automatically normal. – Emil Jeřábek Dec 07 '21 at 13:07
  • 2
    I took the liberty to fix the statement. – Emil Jeřábek Dec 07 '21 at 13:15
2

An n-dimensional function is differentiable in a point x, iff the directional derivative in x is linear in the directions, and if the chain rule holds in x for differentiable curves through x.

2

The regular tetrahedron is the only compact surface in $\mathbb R^3$ that has arbitrarily long closed geodesics.

Michael Hardy
  • 11,922
  • 11
  • 81
  • 119
1

The Hadamard and de la Vallee-Poussin theorem that $\zeta(s)$ does not vanish on the line $\Re(s)=1$.

(Of course, in real-life terms, such games there would have been dangerous... I guess RF did not see anyone among the grad students who could out-guess him, at that particular time. In a way, bad luck for him.)

paul garrett
  • 22,571
1

A lot of cryptography is based on posing problems where the answer is known and easy to check, but extremely hard to find. Moreover, the problems are often straightforward questions in arithmetic. Thus, these kinds of problems seem ideal if you want to win such challenges.

As an example, here is an RSA Type Challenge.

Choose an $n$ according to the current computing power available. Choose two $n$-bit prime numbers $p$ and $q$, and calculate $n=pq$. Also choose a smallish prime $r$ (we take $r=17$ below) and choose a random number $s$ between $1$ and $r-1$. The question you pose is: "Is the remainder of the smaller of the two factors of $n$ modulo 17 equal to $s$?"

  • The probability of guessing the right answer is $1/16$ which is small enough.
  • It is easy to generate a few more of these problems, or to raise the size of $r$ in case you are worried about a correct guess!

Having said that:

  • RSA was itself supposedly a secret until the 70's, so perhaps no one could/would have asked this specific question! (One can pose similar Diffie-Hellman challenges.)
  • It seems like cheating to pose a question which you know that you would also not have been able to solve had you not known the answer!
  • Note that the answer (to the above statement) could be easier to find than the factors of $n$. However, I do not know of an algorithm that is simpler than factoring.
Kapil
  • 1,546
  • 3
    The way the challenge is posed, it must be a "true"/"false" question, so the probability of guessing correctly must always be 0.5 if Feynman guesses uniformly randomly. – kaya3 Dec 08 '21 at 18:30