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In grad school I learned the isomorphism between de Rham cohomology and singular cohomology from a course that used Warner's book Foundations of Differentiable Manifolds and Lie Groups. One thing that I remember being puzzled by, and which I felt was never answered during the course even though I asked the professor about it, was what the theorem could be used for. More specifically, what I was hoping to see was an application of the de Rham theorem to proving a result that was "elementary" (meaning that it could be understood, and seen to be interesting, by someone who had not already studied the material in that course).

Is there a good motivating problem of this type for the de Rham theorem?

To give you a better idea of what exactly I'm asking for, here's what I consider to be a good motivating problem for the Lebesgue integral. It is Exercise 10 in Chapter 2 of Rudin's Real and Complex Analysis. If $\lbrace f_n\rbrace$ is a sequence of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ such that $0\le f_n \le 1$ and such that $f_n(x)\to 0$ as $n\to\infty$ for every $x\in[0,1]$, then $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_0^1 f_n(x)\thinspace dx = 0.$$ This problem makes perfect sense to someone who only knows about the Riemann integral, but is rather tricky to prove if you're not allowed to use any measure theory.

If it turns out that there are lots of answers then I might make this community wiki, but I'll hold off for now.

Timothy Chow
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    I don't think this deserves to be an answer, so I 'll leave it as a comment. I tend to think of the other way, that de Rham cohomology is the thing that one is often interested in. From this point of view de Rham's theorem gives a tool for understanding it at a deeper level, and also for computing it by bring in topological methods. – Donu Arapura Oct 26 '10 at 16:42
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    I've thought of it as the natural extension of the 'miracle' from algebraic topology that the various homology theories (singular, simplicial, CW) are all equal where it makes sense to compare them. Though, to be honest, the de Rham theorem is a much bigger miracle than the other ones. – Ketil Tveiten Mar 02 '11 at 13:02

13 Answers13

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Here is a really "trivial" application. Since a volume form (say from a Riemannian metric) for a compact manifold $M$ is clearly closed (it has top degree) and not exact (by Stoke's Theorem), it follows that the cohomology is non-trivial, so $M$ cannot be contractible.

Dick Palais
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    What about $D^n$? – Nikita Kalinin Oct 26 '10 at 19:44
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    @Nikita: $D^n$ is a manifold-with-boundary, not a manifold (which by definition is locally-diffeo to $R^n$). Perhaps I should have said "closed manifold" to make this point clear. – Dick Palais Oct 26 '10 at 20:11
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    Is that statement (that closed manifolds are not contractible) also true for topological manifolds? – Dominic Wynter Nov 30 '16 at 19:26
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    @MonstrousMoonshine Closed manifolds are not contractible, see Hatcher's Algebraic Topology chapter 3 (caveat: you need to pass from the manifold to its orientation cover to make sure that it is orientable). – Denis Nardin Nov 30 '16 at 20:59
  • Another way to see this (that is more or less the same thing): On a compact manifold, de Rham cohomology and de Rham cohomology with compact support are equal. Moreover, $H^k(M)$ is dual to $H^{n-k}_c(M)$ so that $H^n(M) = H^0(M) \neq 0$. – Asvin Jun 21 '18 at 05:11
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There is quite a number of surprising and deep statements that can be proven using de Rham. The examples I list are not elementary in any sense, but give a glimpse at the power of the theory. They all have in common that they employ features of the de Rham theory that are not at hand in singular theory.

Often de Rham theory is presented as simply being the quickest way to develop cohomology theory, but in my opinion this misses the point. First of all, whether the development of the theory is really simpler than singular theory is contestable, especially if you consider that you get a considerably weaker theory as long as you if you restrict your toolkit to the Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms. Secondly, the real power of de Rham theory becomes apparent when you study specific situations where you can apply different methods than that of standard homology theory. What are these specific situations? Well, I have three examples in mind, but certainly there are much more:

1.) Connections and curvature, i.e. Chern-Weil theory. This can be motivated by the Gauss-Bonnet formula, or, better, the Gauss-Bonnet-Chern theorem, equating the Euler number of a manifold with an integral of some differential form constructed from the curvature. Already the statement that this integral is an integer is pretty intriguing if you do not know about de Rham's theorem.

2.) Symmetry! If a compact group acts on the manifold, you can restrict to invariant forms. If the action is homogeneous, you are left with a finite-dimensional complex. So symmetry can be reduced to cut down the size of the de Rham complex, leading for example to the isomorphism $H^{\ast}(G) \cong (\Lambda \mathfrak{g}^{\ast})^G$ for compact $G$, which came as a real surprise to me when I saw it first. As far as I know, this is the simplest way to the real cohomology of Lie groups.

3.) Kähler metrics! The Hodge decomposition is of course even less elementary than the previous examples, but the statement that the dimension of the space of holomorphic 1-forms on a closed Riemann surface $S$ is precisely the genus (defined as the number of handles) is rather mysterious in the first place.

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    Re 2): Perhaps it's worth mentioning that this connection between the cohomology of a compact connected Lie group G and the cohomology of its Lie algebra is what led Cartan to conjecture the de Rham theorem (cf. the first paragraph of Chevalley--Eilenberg). – Faisal Oct 26 '10 at 23:01
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    Yes, this isomorphism lies quite at the heart of the whole story! And one can also mention that Cartan and Weil combined 1) and 2) and that this ultimately lead to the whole development of rational homotopy theory (modelling spaces by commutative d.g.a's). – Johannes Ebert Oct 26 '10 at 23:18
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I don't know if it is necessary to add yet another answer, but this theme is close to my heart. I'm not a historian, and I would be happy if someone corrects me here, but I have the impression that the idea of understanding a differential in terms of its periods, which would go back to Riemann at least, would have been a historical antecedent to de Rham's theorem. In other words, I don't think the theorem came out of a vacuum.

To explain what I mean by periods, suppose that $X$ is a compact Riemann surface of genus $g$. Then $H_1(X,\mathbb{Z})=\mathbb{Z}^{2g}$, with a basis of loops $\gamma_i$ constructed in the usual way. De Rham's theorem gives an isomorphism of the first de Rham space $H^1(X,\mathbb{C})\cong \mathbb{C}^{2g}$ by identifying a $1$-form $\alpha$ with its period vector $(\int_{\gamma_i}\alpha)$. Of course, the 19th century people would have been more interested in the case where $\alpha$ is holomorphic. In this case, the space of holomorphic forms injects into $H^1(X,\mathbb{C})$ (Proof: $\alpha=df$ implies that $f$ is holomorphic and therefore constant). This is why they could talk about this without explicitly defining cohomology first.

Donu Arapura
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Differential forms and cohomology are somewhat less intuitive than integration (at least for me), so maybe it is no easy to find such a neat example.

Anyway, let's try this one. Consider the 1-form

$\omega:=\frac{xdy-ydx}{x^2+y^2}$

in $X:=\mathbb{R}^2 \setminus 0$.

It provides the standard example of closed form which is not exact, and in fact it is essentially the only example on $X$, because of the following

Proposition.

Every 1-form on $X$ which is closed but not exact is of type $a\omega + \eta$, where $a \in \mathbb{R}$ and $\eta$ is an exact 1-form.

This statement makes perfect sense to everyone who understands differential forms, and at first glance it does not seem obvious at all.

On the other hand, it is an immediate consequence of De Rham theorem: in fact, since $X$ retracts on $S^1$, we have

$H^1_{DR}(X)=H^1_{sing}(X, \mathbb{R})=H^1_{sing}(S^1, \mathbb{R})= \mathbb{R}$,

with generator $[\omega]$.

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    This kind of example is relevant to, and was probably first studied in the context of, classical things in physics - fluid mechanics, electricity and magnetism. – Kevin H. Lin Oct 26 '10 at 18:00
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    To be picky this doesn't seem to be an application of de Rham's theorem. The calculation is just as easy to do directly in de Rham cohomology. – Torsten Ekedahl Oct 26 '10 at 18:51
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    @Torsten I agree with you, but I was not claiming that the computation in De Rham cohomology is particularly difficult. I just see this as a kind of "archetipal" example of De Rham philosophy: non obvious statements about differential forms become transparent facts in topology (and sometimes conversely, see Dick Palais'answer). – Francesco Polizzi Oct 26 '10 at 19:51
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Dear Timothy, here is a theorem which, according to your wish, "could be understood, and seen to be interesting, by someone who had not already studied the material in that course": Brouwer's celebrated fixed point theorem!

It says that every continuous function from the n-dimensional closed ball $B^n \subset \mathbb R^n$ into itself has a fixed point. Please notice that I wrote "continuous" and didn't even mention the word "differentiable"! So how does De Rham solve the problem ?

Step 1 Reduce to showing that there is no continuous retraction to the inclusion $S^{n-1} \to B^n$ of the boundary sphere. This reduction needs only completely elementary vector (= "analytic") geometry.

Step 2 Reduce the no-retraction statement to non-contractibility of $\mathbb R^{n}\setminus O$. Again, this is easy and requires little more than the definition of contractibility

Step 3 Prove the non-contractibility of $\mathbb R^{n}\setminus O$ by showing that $H^{n-1}( \mathbb R^{n}\setminus O)\simeq\mathbb R$, whereas contractible manifolds have zero de Rham cohomolgy in positive degree. This is the step where De Rham's cohomology shines in all its splendour!

In the same vein you can also prove that the n-dimensional sphere $S^n$ has a tangent everywhere non-vanishing vector field if and only if $n$ is odd.

An excellent source for this material is Madsen and Tornehave's extremely well-written From Calculus to Cohomology (Cambridge University Press).

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$\frac{1}{4\pi} \oint_{\gamma_1}\oint_{\gamma_2} \frac{\mathbf{r}_1 - \mathbf{r}_2}{|\mathbf{r}_1 - \mathbf{r}_2|^3} \cdot (d\mathbf{r}_1 \times d\mathbf{r}_2)$

is an integer when $\gamma_1, \gamma_2: S^1 \to \mathbb{R}^3$ are non-intersecting differentiable curves.

Seriously?

This number tells you how many times $\gamma_1$ winds around $\gamma_2$ (The linking number). My wife was a math and biochem major as an undergraduate interested in applying knot theory to genomics, and she and I spent countless hours trying to make sense of this without any knowledge of cohomology. Builds character I guess.

Steven Gubkin
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An interesting application of De Rham's theorem is to show that certain differential manifolds are not diffeomorphic. Here are two examples.

1) For $n$ even the sphere $S^n$ and real projective space $\mathbb P^n(\mathbb R)$ are not diffeomorphic since $H^n(S^n) \simeq \mathbb R$ while $H^n(\mathbb P^n(\mathbb R))=0$. Ah, you say, but I can see that with the concepts of orientation or fundamental group $\pi_1$: I don't need your Swiss's stuff! Fair enough: these are reasonable elementary alternatives.

2) Fix $N\geq 2$ and delete $k$ points from $\mathbb R ^N$: call $X_k$ the resulting manifold. Then for $k\neq l$, the manifolds $X_k$ and $X_l$ are not diffeomorphic since $dim_{\mathbb R} H^{N-1}(X_k )=k\neq l=dim_{\mathbb R} H^{N-1}(X_l )$ . However they are both orientable, and simply connected for $N\geq 3$. So the elementary tools of example 1) do not apply.

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One can use the de Rham theorem to define the Lebesgue integral without ever using any notion of measure theory. More precisely, the integral can be defined as the composition of the following sequence of maps: Ccs(Dens(M))→Hncs,dR(M,Or(M))→Hncs(M,Or(M))→H0(M)→H0(∙)=R.

Here Ccs(Dens(M)) denotes the space of all smooth densities with compact support. The space Ccs(Dens(M)) is mapped to Hncs,dR(M,Or(M)) (the nth de Rham cohomology of M with compact support twisted by the orientation sheaf of M) by the obivous map given by the definition of de Rham cohomology. The space Hncs,dR(M,Or(M)) is isomorphic to Hncs(M,Or(M)) (the nth twisted ordinary cohomology of M with compact support) by the de Rham theorem. The space Hncs(M,Or(M)) is isomorphic to H0(M) by Poincaré duality. Finally, H0(M) can be mapped to H0(∙)=R by the usual pushforward map for homology.

More details are available in this answer: Integrals from a non-analytic point of view

Here is an easy application of the above definition: The easiest version of Stokes' theorem states that ∫dω=0, where ω∈Ωn-1(M,Or(M)). Proof: ∫ factors through the map to the de Rham cohomology. The form dω is a coboundary, hence its image vanishes in the de Rham cohomology and the integral equals zero.

Dmitri Pavlov
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    This is obviously cheating, since you need to use integration to DEFINE the de Rham isomorphism. To clear the fancy language, let us assume $M=\mathbf{R}$. What you defined is a functional on the space of compactly supported smooth functions on $\mathbf{R}$, which is of course the same as the Riemann integral. So you end up precisely where you started. – Johannes Ebert Oct 26 '10 at 18:27
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    It gets worse in higher dimensions: in order to be able to integrate differential forms invariantly, you need the transformation formula for the integral on $\mathbb{R}^n$. This is pretty difficult to show, using Lebesgue. If you want to avoid Lebesgue, you have to prove the transformation formula using the Riemann integral only. That is no fun. – Johannes Ebert Oct 26 '10 at 18:36
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    @Johannes Ebert. We can get the comparison without knowing integration theory. First prove Poincaré Lemma (i.e. de Rham cohomology of '$\mathbf{R}^n$' vanishes in degree $>0$), then, using partitions of unity, compare de Rham cohomology and sheaf cohomology with coefficients in the constant sheaf $\mathbf{R}$, which, in turn, may be compared with the simplicial-like singular cohomology. None of these steps requires any integration theory of any kind; see for instance these elementary lecture notes of Shapira: http://people.math.jussieu.fr/~schapira/lectnotes/AlTo.pdf – D.-C. Cisinski Oct 26 '10 at 23:08
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    That does not matter; all this super-fancy stuff brings you back to the point of departure. Next question: if you define integration in this way, how exactly do you integrate an n-form over a simplex?? You only learn how to integrate it against a homology class (to speak in fancy language, you probably get a pairing of simplices and forms in some $E_{\infty}$-sense). Having the Riemann integral as a linear functional can be done without simplices, sheaves, homological algebra etc. This linear functional is where the real work begins. – Johannes Ebert Oct 26 '10 at 23:44
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    And you did not gain a single piece of insight that helps you with that real work. Of course you can define $L^1 (M)$ formally as a completion (not totally unreasonable, but there are some flaws, see the discussion in Langs ''Real and functional analysis'') and try to prove Fubini and the transformation formula with topology. I am pretty sure that the arguments quickly turn into a monstrous mess, if you try to prove e.g. regularity theory of elliptic operators with that notion of integral. – Johannes Ebert Oct 27 '10 at 00:01
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    @Johannes: Denis has correctly pointed out that you don't need integration to define de Rham isomorphism. Details can also be found in the link. I don't understand what do you mean by the phrase “all this super-fancy stuff brings you back to the point of departure”. There is nothing super-fancy about this definition; what I actually find fancy are dozens of pages in every analysis textbook filled with computations and proofs justifying Lebesgue (or worse, Riemann) integral that nobody actually needs and that disappear when you use this approach. – Dmitri Pavlov Oct 27 '10 at 14:58
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    @Johannes: By the way, here is how you prove (the easiest version of) Stokes' theorem in this approach: ∫dω=[dω]=0. Compare this with long and technical traditional proofs found in many analysis textbooks, which add nothing to your understanding of integration. Also, what kind of evidence do you have for this claim: “I am pretty sure that the arguments quickly turn into a monstrous mess, if you try to prove e.g. regularity theory of elliptic operators with that notion of integral.”? – Dmitri Pavlov Oct 27 '10 at 15:03
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    @Johannes: I am not quite sure what do you mean by “integrate differential forms invariantly”, but the transformation formula is a trivial corollary of the definition of the line bundle of densities. – Dmitri Pavlov Oct 27 '10 at 15:14
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    @Johannes: I am browsing through the third edition of Lang's Real and Functional Analysis, but cannot seem to find the relevant discussion. Could you please give the exact reference? – Dmitri Pavlov Oct 27 '10 at 16:34
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    @Dmitri: in the last sentence of the proof of Lemma 5.5.3, Shapira uses the fundamental theorem of calculus, i.e. the Riemann integral, in an essential way, namely to show that $d: C^{\infty} (I) \to C^{\infty} (I)$ is surjective. – Johannes Ebert Oct 27 '10 at 16:58
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    @Dmitri, Denis: This is what I meant with "super-fancy language": you read "Koszul-complex", "coregular" and do not notice that the fundamental theorem of calculus is the real meat of the proof. – Johannes Ebert Oct 27 '10 at 17:05
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    You seem to overreact. I didn't mean to run into a contest with you, just to point out that Dmitri Pavlov answer makes sense in a very precise way. By the way, the surjectivity of the differential operator can be proved without integrals too (I don't mean that this what we have to do, just that this is possible, even though you need some results from analysis in a way or an other). For the rest, I think you should prevent yourself to use words as 'cheating', 'real work', without giving a precise mathematical definition of it (using Lebesgue integral, of course). Otherwise, I don't understand. – D.-C. Cisinski Oct 27 '10 at 17:34
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    The simplest notion of integral has Riemann's name attached to it because he noticed that the fundamental theorem of calculus needs a proper foundation, and he provided it. – Johannes Ebert Oct 27 '10 at 17:35
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    @Johannes: No, you don't need the integral to prove the surjectivity of d. You can just notice that polynomials are dense in the space of all smooth functions (this does not require integration) and d is surjective on polynomials (purely algebraic statement). More details can be found in the link. – Dmitri Pavlov Oct 28 '10 at 11:24
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    @Johannes: Riemann did not do any of the stuff that you ascribe to him. This was all done by Cauchy. Riemann just noticed that Cauchy's definition of the integral is applicable not just to continuous functions but also to functions that are discontinuous on a set of Lebesgue measure 0. And Riemann integral might be the simplest to you, but for me the simplest notion of the integral is the Lebesgue integral defined in my answer. – Dmitri Pavlov Oct 28 '10 at 11:30
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    @Johannes: Please keep in mind that you can speak for yourself only. Whereas for you the technical and involved justifications of Lebesgue or Riemann integrals found in many analysis textbooks might be easier than sheaves and cohomology, for me it's exactly the opposite. Whereas for you the “real meat” might be some computation, for me it's always the conceptual description of the notion under consideration. – Dmitri Pavlov Oct 28 '10 at 11:52
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    Hey Dmitri, is there any reason why you don't use LaTeX in your MO posts? I wish you would -- it would make your posts easier to read :-) – Kevin H. Lin Oct 29 '10 at 01:50
  • @Kevin: Is it better now? Usually I don't use any special notation apart from subscripts and superscripts. This particular answer uses a lot of subscripts and superscripts and I agree that it is less easy to read in TeX notation than in HTML's sub and sup elements. I wish MathOverflow provided a way to automatically insert sub and sup elements instead of _ and ^ symbols. Is there any chance we can implement this? The reason why I don't use TeX is that MathJax output looks disgusting to me. For some reason it typesets formulas in a completely different font, the end result being horrible. – Dmitri Pavlov Oct 29 '10 at 10:26
  • @Kevin: Another reason why I hate MathJax is that it takes forever to process TeX. This is definitely not the right way to do it. TeX processing should be done at the server side and the resulting HTML code should not contain any MathJax scripts. – Dmitri Pavlov Oct 29 '10 at 10:28
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    Pavlov asserts that the surjectivity of $d$ can be proved by the density of polynomials in smooth functions (yet he declines to specify in which topology) and that more details are in "the link". The only link specified in this thread is to lecture notes of Schapira. Schapira provides no details of this density argument, and his argument for the surjectivity of the operator $\partial_{j+1}$ (required in the proof of the Poincare lemma) consists of the single word "Clearly" (last line of page 123). – Robin Chapman Oct 29 '10 at 10:53
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    @Robin: Please do not ascribe to me things that I have never said. I have never “declined” to specify the topology on smooth functions, because nobody has ever asked me a question about it. I find this style of discussion quite offensive. The link to the lecture notes of Schapira is not the only link in this thread. Another link is given in the answer itself, and this is the link that I meant. – Dmitri Pavlov Oct 29 '10 at 12:49
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    Again, I look in vain in one of Pavlov's links for any clues about the analytic work that hides behind his cohomological conisderations. His previous comment explicates neither in what sense polynomials are dense within smooth functions (nor any proof that they be really are) nor any other inegration-free proof of Poincare's lemma. But in that thread another correspondent revealed that Poincare duality can be proved via Hodge theory, so there may be an even more expensive way of avoiding some simple integration theory than Pavlov advocates. – Robin Chapman Oct 29 '10 at 14:33
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    I did not find such an argument in Shapira's notes either. He clearly assumes the fundamental theorem of calculus and does not not involve in such arcane considerations. – Johannes Ebert Oct 29 '10 at 14:39
  • @Robin: I read that other thread as well. Someone claimed that Hodge theory is "integration-free", which is utterly absurd. What you can of course do is to prove Poincare duality in some other complicated way, e.g. via stable homotopy theory and a Pontrjagin-Thom construction. But beware not to use the Sard Lemma on the way! – Johannes Ebert Oct 29 '10 at 14:53
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    I do not buy the density argument either. What Stone-Weiertrass gives you is that polynomials on $[0,1]$ are $C^0$-dense in the smooth functions. What one needs for the argument to work is $C^1$-density. Cooking up an argument for that without using integration amounts to the construction of some notion of integral. – Johannes Ebert Oct 29 '10 at 15:05
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    @Robin: The topology on the space of smooth functions on a smooth manifold M is given by the following family of seminorms: For each compact subset K of M and for each differential operator D on M we have ‖f‖_K,D = sup_K ‖Df‖. May I also suggest that you should be more constructive in the future? For example, instead of stating that somebody “declined” to answer the question that you have never asked, you might as well ask the question itself. There is nothing wrong with asking questions. Also, could you please refer to me by my first name, which seems to be nearly universal on MO anyway? – Dmitri Pavlov Oct 29 '10 at 17:34
  • @Robin and Johannes: Polynomials are dense in C^k[a,b] for all k, hence for any smooth function f on the real line and for any integer k we can construct a function g_k such that ‖f–g_k‖_{C^k[-k,k]} < 1/k. The resulting sequence g satisfies the property lim g = f, hence polynomials are dense in smooth functions. – Dmitri Pavlov Nov 02 '10 at 11:52
  • @Dmitri: the only problem left is to see that polynomials (on the unit interval) are $C^1$-dense in $C^1$-functions, the rest of the argument is easy/trivial. By Stone-Weierstrass, they are $C^0$-dense. Now you need an argument to bridge the gap between $C^0$ and $C^1$. – Johannes Ebert Nov 02 '10 at 19:37
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    @Johannes: As you have already noticed, it is enough to prove the density for k=1, the rest is done by induction. We now prove that every function f in C^1[0,1] can be approximated by a polynomial P such that ‖f-P‖<ε and ‖f'-P'‖<ε (here ‖g‖ is the sup-norm of g). Use Stone-Weierstraß to construct a polynomial Q such that ‖f'-Q‖<ε. Now choose a polynomial P such that P'=Q and P(0)=f(0). By construction, ‖f'-P'‖<ε. By Lagrange's theorem, f(x)-P(x)=x(f'(y)-P'(y)) for some y, hence ‖f-P‖<ε. – Dmitri Pavlov Nov 03 '10 at 13:59
  • Seems to be correct. Now you have constructed the linear functional on $C^{\infty}_{c.s.} (M)$, which means that you know how to integrate smooth functions with compact support, but not more. If you claim that your approach makes the Lebesgue integral superfluous ("proofs justifying Lebesgue integral that nobody actually needs and that disappear when you use this approach"), then the dominated convergence theorem (used in analysis, for example elliptic regularity theory, on a regular basis) is the next goal to establish. Let's go! – Johannes Ebert Nov 03 '10 at 20:03
  • @Johannes: Complete C^∞_cs(Dens(M)) in the L_1-norm to obtain L_1(M). Complete C^∞(M) in the weak topology induced by L_1(M) to obtain L_0(M)=L^∞(M), the space of bounded measurable functions on M. Now the dominated convergence theorem simply says that every element in L_1(M) is a normal functional on L_0(M). A linear functional on L_0(M) is normal if and only if it is σ-weakly continuous. All elements of L_1(M) are σ-weakly continuous functionals simply by definition of the σ-weak topology. – Dmitri Pavlov Nov 08 '10 at 12:39
  • @Dmitri: I do not understand your statement. Where is the pointwise convergence hidden? And why is $L^{\infty} $ the completion of $C^{\infty}$ (which contains many unbounded elements if $M$ is not compact). – Johannes Ebert Nov 08 '10 at 22:51
  • @Johannes: Sorry, I meant that we complete C^∞_cs, not C^∞. Smooth functions with compact support are dense in bounded measurable functions. – Dmitri Pavlov Nov 09 '10 at 10:56
  • @Dmitri: but not in the L^{\infty}-norm. Try to approximate $1$ on $\mathbb{R}$. – Johannes Ebert Nov 09 '10 at 17:55
  • @Johannes: I complete with respect to the σ-weak topology, i.e., the weak topology induced by L_1(M). – Dmitri Pavlov Nov 09 '10 at 18:33
  • @Johannes: As for your question about the pointwise convergence, one way to state the dominated convergence theorem in this formalism is to say that a sequence of functions f converges to a function g pointwise if lim sup_n |g–f_n|=0. The dominated convergence theorem is implied by Fatou's lemma (the standard proof works in this formalism), which is implied by the monotone convergence theorem (the standard proof also works in this case), which is equivalent to the normality of σ-weakly continuous functionals. – Dmitri Pavlov Nov 11 '10 at 14:35
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    May I summarize the discussion: 1.) It is possible to feed the machinery of homological algebra with elementary, "integration-free" calculus results and it produces a notion of integral for compactly supported smooth functions on Riemann manifolds. 2.) From this notion of integral, you can define the Lebesgue integral by a completion process. 3) to show that the integral satisfies the properties you need for the purposes of e.g. Fourier analysis, you can reproduce the "standard" arguments of Lebegue integration theory in this more abstract context. – Johannes Ebert Nov 15 '10 at 00:41
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    @Johannes: Your summary is correct. In this approach some theorems have proofs of similar complexity (dominated convergence), while others (like Stokes' theorem and monotone convergence) simplify enormously. – Dmitri Pavlov Nov 15 '10 at 11:27
  • The attempt of defining integration on manifolds somehow intrinsically is certainly interesting, but there is (at least) one thing which is not clear to me in this approach: how to realize the $L^1$-completion of $C^\infty_{cs}$ as a space of (equivalence classes of) functions without calling into play some bits of measure theory? If I try to do so I end up trying to mimick the standard proof of completeness of $L^1$, which requires most of the basic definitions in measure theory. I mean, can we give a meaning to the integral of any discontinuous function on, say, [0,1] with this approach? – Nicola Gigli Dec 01 '16 at 18:24
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    @NicolaGigli: Once you've defined L^1 as a completion of C^∞_cs, you can define a map from L^1 to actual functions by sending each point to the limit of average values computed in a ball around this point (like in the Lebesgue differentiation theorem). – Dmitri Pavlov Dec 02 '16 at 00:35
  • but proving that these limits exist requires reproving Lebesgue differentiation theorem, doesn't it? And for that the measure-theoretic vocabulary seems necessary. For instance, those limits only exist almost everywhere, so that we need to give a meaning to negligible sets in your approach. Honestly, the more I think about this, the more I get convinced that you can obtain Riemann integral with this approach but not the Lebesgue one without redoing the basics of measure theory (which seems anyway quite nice) – Nicola Gigli Dec 02 '16 at 10:18
  • @NicolaGigli: We only need to know what a negligible set is, which does not require Lebesgue measure. And the statement of the theorem itself produces a function defined almost everywhere, so this part is necessary even to formulate the theorem, but no other part of the measure-theoretic vocabulary is used. The classical proof of the Lebesgue differentiation theorem (which is only half a page long, see Rudin) also works in this context (and one can make some simplifications, for example, there is no need to give an ad hoc proof of density of continuous functions in L^1). – Dmitri Pavlov Dec 02 '16 at 11:30
  • I agree, but to give the definition of negligible set (unless I miss some point) you still need to come very close to the definition of Lebesgue measure. I imagine you would check if the inf of the integral of positive smooth functions $\geq1$ on the set is 0, which is more or less the same as checking if the inf of measures of containing open sets is 0. Similarly, certainly the proof of Lebesgue's theorem is not long, but still requires to prove estimates for the maximal function. Also, you need to prove density in $L^1$ of smooth functions to check that your mapping is surjective – Nicola Gigli Dec 02 '16 at 12:18
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    My impression is the following. Both in the standard and your approach one takes "as given" the integral of some functions (simple ones for measure theory, smooth ones in your case) and then takes appropriate completion (and one might argue that this completion process is `the' essence of measure theory). Both approaches are self-consistent, but to prove that the abstract completion of the space of smooth functions produces the same result as the standard approach, quite a bit of standard measure theory for Lebesgue measure has to be developed – Nicola Gigli Dec 02 '16 at 12:25
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This is not a motivation of the De Rham theorem itself, but it does motivate the techniques of its proof.

In single-variable calculus you learn the change of variables theorem:

$$\int_a^b f(g(x))g'(x) dx = \int_{g(a)}^{g(b)} f(x) dx.$$

One nice aspect of this theorem is that the function $g$ is only required to be differentiable. But if you think to most multi-variable calculus textbooks, the change-of-variables theorem there requires $g$ to be a diffeomorphism. The single-variable proof involves just the fundamental theorem of calculus and none of the fussy analytic estimates on volumes of paralellepiped images that you see in the multi-variable calculus proof.

But you can give a change-of-variables theorem in the multi-variable calculus setting that does not require $g$ to be a diffeomorphism, and it's proof uses the Poincare lemma.

$$\int_R \omega = \int_R d\beta = \int_{\partial R} \beta$$

here we use that the region $R$ has boundary so $\omega$ is the exterior derivative of an $n-1$-form. You then use change-of-variables on the boundary. Context: let $R, W \subset \mathbb R^n$ be compact $n$-dimensional submanifolds, and let $f : W \to \mathbb R^n$ be a smooth map then you can prove

$$\int_R \omega = \int_W f^* \omega$$

provided $f$ restricts to a degree one map $f_{|\partial W} : \partial W \to \partial R$.

which is a clean generalization of change-of-variables in dimension one.

Ryan Budney
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At first I always thought about the deRham theorem in terms of vector analysis and fluid dynamics. For instance, if one has a curl-free vector field, then one might want to write it as a gradient field of a function. But if your domain has holes (of a certain kind) this will not necessarily be true. The analogous statement holds true for divergence-free vector fields that you want to write as the curl of another vector field.

Orbicular
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The isomorphism between de Rham cohomology and singular cohomology is in a sense just basic homological algebra if you take Iversen's point of view that ordinary cohomology of "reasonable" spaces (spaces homotopic to CW complexes) should be sheaf cohomology. By basic homological algebra, it follows that cohomology can be computed using any acyclic resolution. The assumption that smooth manifolds are paracompact means that smooth partitions of unity exist, and hence the sheaf of smooth functions $\mathcal{O}_M$ is fine, and hence sheaves of $\mathcal{O}_M$-modules (such has vector bundles) are acyclic. The Poincare lemma is precisely the statement that the de Rham complex is a resolution of the constant sheaf $\mathbb{R}$ on $M$.

So the existence of an isomorphism is really obvious. The interesting content of de Rham's theorem, for me, isn't the existence of an isomorphism itself, but rather that there is a chain map from k-forms (as opposed to de Rham cohomology classes) to singular cochains given by integration of k-forms over singular k-chains. The proof that this is a chain map is precisely Stoke's theorem for integration over singular chains.

ಠ_ಠ
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I don't know if this counts as "elementary", but I think the whole story connecting the topology and Morse theory of a closed oriented surface with its deRham cohomology is quite pretty. I recommend the book "Differential Topology" by Guillemin and Pollack. Or Milnor's "Topology from a Differentiable Viewpoint".

Deane Yang
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More elementary than my previous post is this "de Rham for the punctured plane in a nutshell", which shows how differential forms capture essential topological information. Put $\omega:= \frac{1}{2\pi i} z^{-1} dz$, a closed $1$-form on $C^{\times}$. Given any smooth path $c$ in the punctured plane, the integral $\int_{c} \omega$ gives a lift of $c$ to $C$ (i.e., the logarithm of $c(1)/c(0)$). If $c$ is closed, you get an integer, call it $\langle \omega, c\rangle$, which is of course the usual path-lifting from covering space theory. But you can also view it as an integration of a specific form over cycles! It is not hard to show, using integration, that $c$ is nullhomotopic iff $\langle \omega,c\rangle=0$, which gives, by the way, a computation of $\pi_1 (C^{\times})$. But now you can vary $\omega$ instead. If $d\omega \neq 0$, examples show that $\langle \omega, c\rangle$ is not homotopy-invariant, so discard that case. If $\omega =df$, show that $\rangle \omega,c\rangle =0$. If $\langle \omega,c\rangle=0$ for all $c$, a likewise elementary argument shows that $\omega=df$, and you have proven de Rhams theorem for $C^{\times}$. You can do the same computation for $S^1=R /Z$ instead, but there you are tempted to integrate only over the fundamental class, which hides essential features of that yoga.

B.t.w.:Moritas book "Geometry of differential forms" contains another application cute application of the de Rham theorem: a definition of the integral Hopf invariant of a map $f:\bS^3 \to \bS^2$ in terms of differential forms (page 133). Morita also discusses Gauss' integral formula for the linking number.