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More specifically, letting $I=[0,1]$, do there exist $f,E$ with $E$ a (necessarily nonseparable) Banach space and $f$ a bounded Lebesgue measurable function $I\to E$ such that $f$ is not equal almost everywhere to a pointwise limit of a sequence of simple Lebesgue measurable functions? Here "simple" means having finite range, and Lebesgue measurability of $f$ means that $f^{-1}[A]$ is a Lebesgue measurable set in $I$ for every Borel set $A$ in $E$ .

If such $f,E$ exist, and if one constructs $F=L^p(I,E)$ along the lines of Problem 4 on page 120 in Richard M. Dudley's book Real Analysis and Probability, Wadsworth 1989, one obtains $F$ where the set of (equivalence classes of) simple functions is not dense. If instead of Lebesgue measurable functions one here considers the Borel measurable ones, this pathology is not possible by Corollary 4.2.7 on page 97 and Problem 10 on page 99 loc. cit.

I guess that an explicit construction might not be possible, and one should (somehow) use something based on the axiom of choice.

TaQ
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No. In fact, every Lebesgue measurable function $f\colon I\to E$ is equal almost everywhere to a limit of simple Lebesgue measurable functions. As you hint at in the question, this is easy to show in the case where $E$ is separable. The general situation reduces to the separable case due to the following result. For a full proof, see Fremlin, Measure Theory, Volume 4 Part I, Lemma 451Q.

Theorem 1: Let $(X,\Sigma,\mu)$ be a finite compact measure space, $Y$ a metrizable space, and $f\colon X\to Y$ a measurable function. Then, there is a closed separable subspace $Y_0$ of $Y$ such that $f^{-1}(Y\setminus Y_0)$ is negligible.

That is, $f$ has essentially separable image. Restricting $f$ to the complement of a negligible set reduces the problem to the situation where the codomain is separable, in which case it is a limit of simple functions. Compactness of the space $(X,\Sigma,\mu)$ means that there is a family $\mathcal{K}\subseteq\Sigma$ such that any subset of $\mathcal{K}$ with the finite intersection property has nonempty intersection, and such that $\mu$ is inner-regular with respect to $\mathcal{K}$. That is, $\mu(E)=\sup\{\mu(K)\colon K\in\mathcal{K},K\subseteq E\}$ for every $E\in\Sigma$. In particular, the Lebesgue measure is compact by taking $\mathcal{K}$ to be the collection of compact sets under the standard topology.

The proof of Theorem 1 is rather tricky, involving what Fremlin describes as "non-trivial set theory". It rests on the following two results.

Theorem 2: Any metrizable space has a $\sigma$-disjoint base $\mathcal{U}$. That is, $\mathcal{U}$ is a base for the topology, and can be written as $\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty\mathcal{U}_n$ where each $\mathcal{U}_n$ is a disjoint collection of sets.

(Fremlin, Measure Theory, Volume 4 II, 4A2L (g-ii))

Theorem 3: Let $(X,\Sigma,\mu)$ be a finite compact measure space and $\{E_i\}_{i\in I}$ be a disjoint family of subsets of $X$ such that $\bigcup_{i\in J}E_i\in\Sigma$ for every $J\subseteq I$. Then, $\mu\left(\bigcup_{i\in I}E_i\right)=\sum_{i\in I}\mu(E_i)$.

(Fremlin, Measure Theory, Volume 4 I, 451P).

Theorem 3 is particularly remarkable, as it extends the countable additivity of the measure to arbitrarily large unions of sets.

Once these two results are known, the proof that $f$ has essentially separable image in Theorem 1 is straightforward. Let $\mathcal{U}=\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty\mathcal{U}_n$ be a $\sigma$-disjoint base for $Y$. Let $\mathcal{V}_n$ be the collection of $U\in\mathcal{U}_n$ such that $\mu(f^{-1}(U)) = 0$. By countable additivity, $\mathcal{U}_n\setminus\mathcal{V}_n$ is countable. Also, $\{f^{-1}(U)\colon U\in\mathcal{V}_n\}$ is a disjoint collection of negligible subsets of $X$ and, by measurability of $f$, any union of a subcollection of these is measurable. It follows from Theorem 3 that its union is negligible. That is, $f^{-1}\left(\bigcup\mathcal{V}_n\right)$ is negligible. Setting $Y_0=Y\setminus\bigcup_n\bigcup\mathcal{V}_n$ then, by countable additivity, $f^{-1}(Y\setminus Y_0)$ is negligible. Also, $\bigcup_n(\mathcal{U}_n\setminus\mathcal{V}_n)$ restricts to a countable base for the topology on $Y_0$, so it is separable (in fact, it is second-countable).

Finding a $\sigma$-disjoint base for the topology on $Y$ is easy enough. Following Fremlin, you can do this by well-ordering $Y$ and letting $(q_n,q^\prime_n)$ be a sequence running through the pairs $(q,q^\prime)$ of rationals with $0 < q < q^\prime$. Letting $\mathcal{U}_n$ be the collection of sets of the form $$ G_{ny}=\left\{x\in Y\colon d(x,y) < q_n, \inf_{z < y}\,d(x,z) > q_n^\prime\right\} $$ (over $y\in Y$) gives a $\sigma$-disjoint base.

The really involved part of the proof is in establishing Theorem 3. I suggest you look in Fremlin for the details, but the idea is as follows. By countable additivity, only countably many $E_i$ can have positive measure so, removing these, we can suppose that every $E_i$ is negligible. Also, restricting $X$ to the union of the $E_i$ if necessary, we can suppose that $X=\bigcup_iE_i$. Then define the function $f\colon X\to I$ by $f(x)=i$ for $x\in E_i$. Using the power set $\mathcal{P}I$ for the sigma-algebra on $I$, $f$ will be measurable. Then let $\nu=\mu\circ f^{-1}$ be the image measure on $(I,\mathcal{P}I)$. Fremlin breaks this down into two cases.

a) $\nu$ is atomless. As with any finite atomless measure space, there will be a measure preserving map $g\colon I\to[0,\gamma]$ for some $\gamma\ge0$, with respect to the Lebesgue measure $\lambda$ on $[0,\gamma]$. Using compactness, it can be shown that the sets on which $\lambda$ and $\nu\circ g^{-1}$ are well-defined coincide (precisely, $\mu$ is compact, so it is perfect, so $\nu\circ g^{-1}$ is perfect and therefore is Radon). The existence of non-Lebesgue sets will then give a contradiction unless $\gamma=0$, so $\mu(X)=0$.

b) $\nu$ has an atom $M\subseteq I$: In this case, $\mathcal{F}=\{F\subseteq M\colon\nu(M\setminus F)=0\}$ is a non-principal ultrafilter on $M$ which is closed under countable intersections. Again making use of compactness of $\mu$, this can be used to derive a contradition, but it requires some tricky set theory. I refer you to Fremlin (451P) for the full details of this argument.

Update: I will, however, give a brief overview of the ideas involved in (b). It is possible to reduce the problem to the case where $M$ is a regular uncountable ordinal and $\mathcal{F}$ is a normal ultrafilter. Using $[S]^n$ to denote the collection of size-$n$ subsets of a set $S$ and $[S]^{ < \omega}=\bigcup_{n=0}^\infty[S]^n$ for the collection of finite subsets, normal ultrafilters have the following property.

If $\mathcal{S}\subseteq[M]^{ < \omega}$ then there exists an $F\in\mathcal{F}$ such that, for each $n\ge0$, $[F]^n$ is either a subset of $\mathcal{S}$ or disjoint from $\mathcal{S}$.

See, Frelim (4A1L). This contradicts compactness as follows. Set $G_i=\bigcup\{E_j\colon j\in M, j\ge i\}$. Then choose $K_i\in\mathcal{K}$ with $K_i\subseteq G_i$ and $\mu(K_i) > 0$. Let $\mathcal{S}$ consist of the finite subsets $S\subset M$ such that $\bigcap_{i\in S}K_i=\emptyset$. Choose $F\in\mathcal{F}$ as above. It is not possible for $[F]^n$ to be a subset of $\mathcal{S}$. Otherwise, every $x\in X$ would be contained in no more than $n$ of the sets $\mathcal{K}^\prime=\{K_i\colon i\in F\}$. So, $\sum_{i\in F}\mu(K_i)\le n\nu(M)$. But, as this sum is over an uncountably infinite set of positive numbers, it should be infinite. Therefore, $[F]^{ < \omega}\cap\mathcal{S}=\emptyset$, and $\mathcal{K}^\prime$ satisfies the finite intersection property. So, by compactness, $\bigcap_{i\in F}G_i\supseteq\bigcap\mathcal{K}^\prime\not=\emptyset$. This contradicts the fact that, as $F\in\mathcal{F}$ is an unbounded subset of $M$, this intersection is empty.

George Lowther
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  • I gave you +1 just for the effort and would give more if I could. I thought about the question quite a bit, but couldn't come to grips with it, but I hadn't expected it to be that difficult. A very naive question (triggered by the phrase "non-trivial set theory"): Theorems 1,2 and 3 are theorems of ZFC and no trickery such as Martin's axiom or the continuum hypothesis is involved? – Theo Buehler Feb 06 '11 at 17:36
  • Yes, they are all theorems of ZFC. No additional trickery is required. I think, by the phrase "non-trivial set theory", Fremlin means that it requires rather more in-depth set theory than you would expect for a pure measure theory question. – George Lowther Feb 06 '11 at 17:43
  • +1 Nicely done, George. I was also interested in this, but couldn't answer it... –  Feb 06 '11 at 18:05
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    In case (b) at the end, the existence of a non-principal ultrafilter closed under countable intersections is equivalent to the existence of a measurable cardinal, a large cardinal notion whose existence is not provable in ZFC. In particular, if there are no measurable cardinals, then this case does not occur. – Joel David Hamkins Feb 06 '11 at 22:16
  • @Joel: Thanks for that comment. If there are no measurable cardinals then that gives a proof that (b) does not occur. However, as far as I can tell, Fremlin does not depend on anything outside of ZFC. The proof that (b) does not occur does re-use the fact that $\mu$ is compact. So, your comment seems to imply that the compactness is indeed necessary if you want to stay within ZFC. – George Lowther Feb 06 '11 at 22:58
  • Also, case (a) is equivalent to the nonexistence of real-valued measurable cardinals (equiconsistent with ZFC and implied by the continuum hypothesis, according to Wikipedia: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Measurable_cardinal#Real-valued_measurable). So, if you drop the compactness condition on the measure, then the whole result (Theorems 1 and 3) become equivalent to the nonexistence of of measurable cardinals and of real-valued measurable cardinals. I think... – George Lowther Feb 06 '11 at 23:25
  • Furthermore, I assume that no measurable cardinals+no real-valued measurable cardinals is independent of ZFC. So, dropping the compactness requirement for $\mu$, the whole statement becomes independent of ZFC. – George Lowther Feb 06 '11 at 23:39
  • Well, it may be more complicated (but I have not yet digested the whole argument), since the assertion that there are no measurable cardinals and no real-valued measurable cardinals is only independent of ZFC if you assume it is consistent they do in fact exist. That is, the independence has large cardinal consistency strength. A similar situation arises with the assertion over ZF that "there are non-Lebesgue measurable sets". This is independent of ZF if and only if the existence of an inaccessible cardinal is consistent with ZFC. – Joel David Hamkins Feb 06 '11 at 23:46
  • @Joel: Ok, I'm not sure I follow these consistency/independence results. I was getting a bit confused by Wikipedia's assertions that ZF+AD implies that $\omega_1$ is a measurable cardinal(*). So, the existence of measurable cardinals must be independent of ZF. However, it then claims that ZFC+real-valued measurable cardinals is equiconsistent with ZF+measurable cardinals. Then, it seems like ZFC+real-valued cardinals is equiconsistent with ZFC. But, why not just state this? Maybe what I'm missing is that the consistency of some large cardinal axiom was required for the statement of (*)? – George Lowther Feb 07 '11 at 00:05
  • Ah, sorry, you can't prove the consistency of ZF+AD within ZF (or within ZFC, I suppose), which is what I was missing there. – George Lowther Feb 07 '11 at 00:13
  • Yes, AD itself is very strong, equiconsistent with ZFC+infinitely many Woodin cardinals (much stronger than just a measurable). So one only knows that these statements are independent given that certain larger cardinals are consistent, which is a stronger assumption than mere Con(ZFC). – Joel David Hamkins Feb 07 '11 at 00:14
  • @Joel: One further (hopefully quick) question. We can't prove the consistency of either measurable cardinals (mc) or real-valued measurable cardinals (rmc) with ZFC from within ZFC. However, can we prove the opposite -- that it is consistent that there are no mc and no rmc? Maybe so, otherwise either ZFC+mc or ZFC+rmc would be consistent (assuming ZFC is consistent). This would imply that ZFC+rmc is consistent. And maybe knowing the existence of a real-valued measurable cardinal is enough to be able to prove the relative consistency. – George Lowther Feb 07 '11 at 00:30
  • Many thanks to George Lowther for the detailed answer. Thanks also for the various comments. – TaQ Feb 07 '11 at 13:24
  • @George: (First, I find it strange to still be making a point nowadays that perhaps inaccessible cardinals are inconsistent. Of course they are consistent! That we cannot prove this in a first order fashion simply says that first order is not the right framework.) Anyway, the inner model L (Goedel's constructible universe) is a model of ZFC + "there are no measurable cardinals", and this is provable in ZF. The reason this does not contradict the incompleteness theorems is that L is a proper class. In any case: This shows that Con(ZF) implies Con(ZFC+ there are no measurables.) Same with rvm. – Andrés E. Caicedo Feb 12 '11 at 06:50
  • Very nice, George! Also a good advertisement for Fremlin's fine book. – Bill Johnson Feb 22 '11 at 20:23
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    The links to eom.springer.de are broken, but they can now be found at https://encyclopediaofmath.org/wiki/Perfect_measure and https://encyclopediaofmath.org/wiki/Radon_measure. – The Amplitwist Jul 25 '22 at 18:47