43

Integration on an orientable differentiable n-manifold is defined using a partition of unity and a global nowhere vanishing n-form called volume form. If the manifold is not orientable, no such form exists and the concept of a density is introduced, with which we can integrate both on orientable and non-orientable manifolds. My question is: On a non-orientable n-manifold, every n-form vanishes somewhere, but shouldn't I be able to chose an n-form with say a countable number of zeros, which would then constitute a set of measure zero and thus allow me to use n-forms (with zeros) for global integration also on non-orientable n-manifolds?

ISH
  • 843

6 Answers6

43

The problem is that there is no way to figure out signs - It would be like trying to integrate a function from $\mathbb{R}$ to $\mathbb{R}$ without knowing whether you were moving forward or backward.

What you CAN actually integrate are pseudo-differential forms. The whole point of choosing an orientation is to turn a differential form into a psuedo-differential form. For those, I recommend the wonderful short story by John Baez found here:

https://groups.google.com/group/sci.physics.research/msg/3c6a1a7237b66c8c?dmode=source&pli=1

Steven Gubkin
  • 11,945
  • 2
    Some of us find scrolling down more of a chore than (not) clicking ;) – Yemon Choi Mar 09 '12 at 16:36
  • Steven, I did click, I was mildly amused though not fired with the zeal of the convert, and now I have to scroll down ever tabernac time I want to read the answer below yours :( – Yemon Choi Mar 10 '12 at 19:45
  • Is it really too much to ask that you could editorialize? – Yemon Choi Mar 10 '12 at 19:47
  • 2
    Since you seem to feel quite strongly about it, I guess I will roll it back out of respect (I really have enjoyed a lot of your answers on this site!). Hopefully this comment thread doesn't obstruct your scrolling pleasures when we are done with it - maybe we should delete all these comments too. – Steven Gubkin Mar 12 '12 at 06:12
  • 2
    More than 10 years after, I keep using this answer as a relay station to that short story. Great answer and legendary story. – Giuseppe Negro Oct 07 '23 at 21:24
  • 2
    For future visitors: in case the link ever rots, note that the full text of the story is inside the edit/revision history of the answer. – D.R. Mar 21 '24 at 15:43
  • @D.R. This is a good point. Although I did this accidentally, it is actually kind of a cool trick for preserving link contents more generally. – Steven Gubkin Mar 21 '24 at 16:25
33

This is not an answer, but on reading the discussion I thought that it would be nice if someone gave the definition of a density so that no one would think that it is a complicated object. I learned the following (somewhat more general definition) from I.M. Gelfand:

Definition. A $k$-density on a manifold $M$ is a continuous real-valued function defined on the cone of simple (a.k.a. decomposable) tangent $k$-vectors on $M$ that is homogeneous of degree one. A $k$-density $\varphi$ is said to be smooth if for every $k$-tuple of smooth linearly independent vector fields $X_i$ $(1 \leq i \leq k)$ defined in some open set $U \subset M$, we have that the function $$ y \mapsto \varphi(X_1(y)\wedge \cdots \wedge X_k(y)) $$
is smooth in $U$.

A densitiy is called even if $\varphi(-v) = \varphi(v)$ for every simple tangent $k$-vector $v$. Likewise, we have odd $k$-densities that generalize differential $k$-forms

Examples and context

If $\Omega$ is a volume form on a manifold of dimension $n$, then both $\Omega$ and $|\Omega|$ are $n$-densities. The arc-length element of a Riemannian or Finsler metric is a $1$-density. The $k$-area integrand of a Riemannian or Finsler manifold is a $k$-density.

Parametric integrands (in the sense of Federer-Fleming) define $k$-densities when restricted to the cone of simple vectors, but densities are way more general.

Varifolds of dimension $k$ are elements of the dual to the space of even $k$-densities. This is basically their definition: because of their homogeneity even $k$-densities can be seen as continuous functions on the bundle of tangent $k$-planes.

A message from our sponsor

For more examples and for neat applications to integral geometry (if I may say so myself ...), which becomes much easier if differential forms are replaced by densities, see the paper Gelfand transforms and Crofton formulas.

Glorfindel
  • 2,743
alvarezpaiva
  • 13,238
  • 1
    I would just like to add a word of endorsement for anything written by Juan Carlo Alvarez-Paiva. – Deane Yang Mar 09 '12 at 16:12
  • 4
    Your terminology of "k-densities" nicely clashes with 1/2-densities used in geometric quantization. There are really two indices attached to densities: one is the number of vectors they eat. The other deals with how they transform, that is, a character of GL(n), which can be identified with a nonzero complex number. – Eugene Lerman Feb 12 '13 at 18:00
  • It's not my terminology. It is Gelfand and Gindikin's, I believe, and I think they introduced it before Guillemin and Sternberg used 1/2 densities. – alvarezpaiva Feb 14 '13 at 20:57
  • When I first read your answer at http://mathoverflow.net/questions/99488/the-ds-which-appears-in-an-integral-with-respect-to-arclength-is-not-a-1-form claiming that the arclength element in a Riemannian manifold is a 1-density, I thought that this was wrong, since I knew the notation mentioned by Eugene. (In that notation, a 1-density is the same thing a top-rank pseudoform, so I took your answer at first to mean that ds is a pseudoform on the curve seen as a 1-dimensional manifold in its own right, which is not exactly wrong but also not good enough.) – Toby Bartels Mar 01 '13 at 21:52
  • 1
    The point being, that it might be good to warn people about the conflict when you use the term, that's all. – Toby Bartels Mar 01 '13 at 21:53
  • 2
    A curious fact is that Guillemin and Sternberg dedicate their book to Gelfand (from whose work they learned integral geometry, I assume) and then they define $\alpha$-densities without saying their notation "nicely clashes" with Gelfand's ;-) – alvarezpaiva Mar 05 '13 at 10:06
  • 1
    For the benefit of people who might want to find the Gelfand and Gindikin reference, I believe it is “Nonlocal inversion formulas in real integral geometry”, Funct. Anal. Its Appl. (1977) 11, 173–179, originally in Russian in Функц. анализ и его прил. (1977) 11(3), 12–19. – Alex Shpilkin Jul 10 '16 at 02:51
  • @AlexShpilkin, thanks! I had forgotten where it was. – alvarezpaiva Jul 18 '16 at 19:31
  • I’m sorry for the basic question, but could you do some basic concrete examples/computations of why the arclength element in 2D $\sqrt{(dx)^2+(dy)^2}$ and surface area element in 3D (pg. 6 of https://math.berkeley.edu/~wodzicki/H185.S11/podrecznik/2forms.pdf) are $k$-densities for $k=1,2$ (or perhaps following the advice of the comments, maybe $(k,s)$-densities for $k=1,2$ and $s=1$)? And to double check, your definition is the same as on Wikipedia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Density_on_a_manifold? Or is it more general since you can take $k$ less than the dimension of the manifold $n$? – D.R. Mar 21 '24 at 17:40
  • 1
    @D.R. : Yes, Wikipedia is only doing $n$-densities. (It does mention general $s$-densities, but this is the Guillemin–Sternberg $s$, not the Gelfand–Gindikin $n$.) To define $đs=\sqrt{\mathrm dx^2+\mathrm dy^2}$ as an operation on tangent vectors on $\mathbb R^2$, interpret $\mathrm dx$ as the $x$-component of the vector and $\mathrm dy$ as the $y$-component; in other words, the operation is the standard norm $|{\cdot}|$. It's smooth because, as a function of points, it's constant. It's absolute-homogeneous of degree $1$ because $|{cv}|=|c|^1|v|$. It's even because $|{-v}|=|v|$. – Toby Bartels Mar 23 '24 at 14:46
  • 1
    @D.R. : The 3D surface area element takes a decomposable $2$-vector $v\wedge w$ and returns the area of the parallelogram spanned by $v$ and $w$. This is really a function of the $2$-vector (rather than only a function of the pair of vectors) because the area spanned by $cv$ and $w$ is the same as the are spanned by $v$ and $cw$. In fact, it's absolute-homogeneous of degree $1$ because this area is $|c|$ times the area of the parallelogram spanned by $v$ and $w$. It's smooth because, again, it's constant on points. It's even too. – Toby Bartels Mar 23 '24 at 14:52
  • 1
    @D.R. : I mixed up the sense in which a density must be homogeneous of degree $1$. In general, it only needs to be positive-homogenous: $\phi(cV)=c\phi(V)$ (where $V$ is a decomposable multivector) for $c\ge0$. If it's even ($\phi(-V)=\phi(V)$), then it's absolute-homogeneous ($\phi(cV)={|c|}\phi(V)$ for any $c$); in fact, it's absolute-homogeneous iff it's both positive-homogeneous and even. But if it's odd ($\phi(-V)=-\phi(V)$), then it's just-plain homogeneous ($\phi(cV)=c\phi(V)$ for any $c$); in fact, it's homogeneous iff it's positive-homogenous and odd. Both elements above are even. – Toby Bartels Mar 23 '24 at 15:01
  • @TobyBartels so for the example of $\mathbb R^2$, 1-forms, at some fixed point, eating one vector, must be linear (in that its behavior eating a horizontal vector and vertical vector completely determines its behavior for all other directions of vectors), and hence can by decomposed as a linear combination of $dx,dy$; but rank 1 densities (weight 1) have no such restriction? Also it may be better to bring the conversation under my post https://mathoverflow.net/questions/467473/densities-pseudoforms-absolute-differential-forms-and-measures-differential-f instead of under this answer – D.R. Mar 23 '24 at 21:16
  • 1
    @D.R. : I'm writing an answer to your new post; but yes, Gelfand–Gindikin densities aren't required to be linear. Since they are required to be homogeneous and continuous, there is some restriction; thus odd $n$-densities end up having to be linear after all (they're the same as exterior $n$-forms). Also, even $n$-densities (equivalent to exterior pseudo-$n$-forms) have to be sort of linear ($\phi(V+W)=\phi(V)+\phi(W)$ if $\phi(V)$ and $\phi(W)$ have the same sign); so GS $s$-densities, which generalize these, have to be sort of linear too. But GG $k$-densities for $0<k<n$ have more options. – Toby Bartels Mar 23 '24 at 22:04
  • 1
    @D.R. : Actually, linearity is kind of a red herring for GG densities, since $V+W$ isn't usually even decomposable just because $V$ and $W$ are; although it is when $V$ and $W$ are $n$-vectors (on a manifold of dimension $n$), since all $n$-vectors are). – Toby Bartels Mar 23 '24 at 22:09
26

First of all, the things that you actually integrate are densities, which are the differential geometric counterparts of measures. No orientation is needed. On a smooth manifold $M$ with separable topology there is an intrinsic concept of negligible set. A density is then a signed measure $\mu$ such that $|\mu|(B)=0$ for any negligible Borel subset.

A degree $n$ form on an $n$-dimensional manifold is almost a density, but not quite. We need an orientation to associate to the top degree form a density. This is what you ultimately integrate when you integrate a form. For more details see Section 3.4.1 of these notes.

  • Thank you for the link. I guess what I am asking is if I could forget about densities and, with my above argument just resort to n-forms also in the non-orientable case. It is just that forms appear all over the place and up to now, I've seen densities used only for integration on non-orientable manifolds. So, is there no way I could get around having to use densities? – ISH Mar 07 '12 at 14:25
  • 8
    If integration is your goal, then you cannot avoid densities. as a matter of fact it is easier to work with densities then with forms. There is a concept of pseudo-form which a bit tricky; see the book The Geometry of Physics by Theodore Frankel. – Liviu Nicolaescu Mar 07 '12 at 14:57
  • 7
    Following up on pseudo-forms: A degree-$n$ pseudo-form on an n-dimensional manifold is the same thing as a density (and hence the same thing as an absolutely continuous Radon measure) so can be integrated directly, while a degree-$k$ pseudo-form for $k < n$ can be integrated only with the help of a pseudo-orientation (on the region of integration). Flux is a good example of the integral of a pseudo-form (of degree $n - 1$); the pseudo-orientation specifies in which direction one is passing through. – Toby Bartels Mar 01 '13 at 22:01
15

You would expect the zero set of an $n$-form to have codimension 1 rather than being countable. Your suggestion of choosing some $n$-form on a non-orientable manifold $M^n$ and defining integrals relative to that essentially amounts to cutting $M$ into two orientable pieces along a codimension 1 submanifold, choosing an orientation on each, and adding the integrals on the two pieces. You can certainly do that, but since the answer depends on the choice of $n$-form/cutting it is not very natural or interesting (whereas the integral on an oriented manifold only depends on the orientation and not on the choice of orientation form).

  • « whereas the integral on an oriented manifold only depends on the orientation and not on the choice of orientation form ». Maybe you need to normalize the volume to $1$? By linearity, for $\lambda >0$, we have $\int f \cdot\lambda\cdot\mathcal{V}=\lambda\cdot\int f\cdot\mathcal{V}$, so the integral does depend on the volume form. – Qfwfq Mar 07 '12 at 18:40
  • 3
    By integration, I mean (and interpreted the question as referring to) a linear functional on (compactly supported) $n$-forms, rather than on functions. This functional depends only on the orientation. – Johannes Nordström Mar 07 '12 at 19:20
7

In fact, for the purpose of integrating functions on a non-orientable manifold, you don't directly need densities. Every (connected) manifold $M$ has an orientable double cover (connected if and only $M$ is not orientable), $\pi: \tilde M \to M$. Then, upon fixing an orientation and a volume form $\mathcal V$ on $\tilde M$, you can define the integral of a function $f$ on $M$ by

$$\frac{1}{2}\;\int_{\;\tilde M}\left(f\circ\pi\right) \mathcal V\,.$$ Of course, if $M$ is not orientable, the volume form $\mathcal V$ cannot be chosen so as to be invariant under the involution that swaps the two points in each fiber of $\pi$, otherwise it would be the pullback of a volume form on $M$.

This has the disadvantage of not being very canonical in general. But, if $M$ is equipped with a Riemannian metric $g$, then there is a canonical volume form on $\tilde M$, namely that induced by $\pi^* g$. So, for instance, the volume of a Riemannian Moebius strip or of a Riemannian Klein bottle is well defined.

Qfwfq
  • 22,715
  • Actually this integral comes from the theory of the Lebesgue integral which is based on the measure. – C.F.G Nov 13 '20 at 22:08
  • Would all the integrals of differential forms that rely on the orientation be zero on the double cover? E.g. integrating flux over a Mobius strip embedded in $\mathbb{R}^3$: $\omega = \star(f_1 dx + f_2 dy + f_3 dz)$. Then if I use the standard parametrization for a Mobius strip I would change $\theta\in [0,2\pi]$ to $\theta\in[0,4\pi]$. But then at every point I will once pass through a positive normal, and once through a negative one, which would cancel out and give me zero. So is this mostly useful for computing integrals not relying on orientation? – lightxbulb Oct 24 '23 at 17:06
2

I think one reason that integration of forms instead of densities is prefered is that one can use Stokes theorems.

Wei Luo
  • 69
  • Are you sure about that? – Pait Mar 15 '12 at 12:19
  • 3
    I don't know why people voted this down? That is of course the point. However, it is not a matter of "preference" : arc-length or area are not differential forms. Many things are densities in a natural way and cannot be made into differential forms. – alvarezpaiva Jun 13 '12 at 22:38
  • 4
    Stokes's Theorem applies equally well to pseudo-forms, which includes densities. (I mean those densities that ISH was asking about, $n$-densities in the Gelfand–Gindikin sense, $1$-densities in the Guillemin–Sternberg sense, with both senses also allowing more general notions of density that are not pseudo-forms.) – Toby Bartels Mar 01 '13 at 22:10
  • For example, if $B$ is a ball with boundary sphere $S$, this induces a pseudo-orientation (notion of inside and outside) on $S$, so we can integrate pseudo-forms on it. Let $\omega$ be a density (say the density of some physical substance). If we also have a vector field $v$ (say, a velocity field), then the interior product $\iota_v \omega$ is an $(n-1)$-pseudo-form (where $n$ is the dimension of the ambient manifold). Then $\int_S \iota_v \omega = \int_B \mathrm{d}(\iota_v \omega)$, by Stokes's Theorem. … – Toby Bartels Mar 01 '13 at 22:14
  • … The integral $\int_S \iota_v \omega$ is the flux of the substance through the surface $S$; if the substance is conserved, then we have $\int_S \iota_v \omega + \int_B \dot\omega = 0$, where the dot indicates differentiation with respect to time. (That is, imagine spacetime as the cartesian product of a space manifold with a time line; our fields are defined on all of spacetime but are thought of as forms only on space.) Since $B$ could be any ball, conclude that $\mathrm{d}(\iota_v \omega) + \dot\omega = 0$, the differential equation of continuity. – Toby Bartels Mar 02 '13 at 20:33
  • A great source for intuition and physical meaning of pseudoforms is Theodore Frankel's Geometry of Physics: http://books.google.com/books/about/The_Cambridge_Companion_to_Jonathan_Swif.html?id=DUnjs6nEn8wC (Google Books has somehow got the wrong title). – Toby Bartels Mar 23 '13 at 05:39