What does Bell's Theorem really violate?

Asked Mar 22 '14 at 10:06

Active Mar 22 '14 at 10:06

Viewed 82 times

Well this is a fairly straightforward question. I know it states that either hidden variables is wrong or Quantum Mechanics. But indirectly hidden variables is a part of QM due to uncertainty. So what exactly does it violate. I am just a bit confused.

asked Mar 22 '14 at 10:06

rahulgarg12342

2,469

1

"But indirectly hidden variables is a part of QM due to uncertainty"
What do you mean? You should realize that Bell's theorem tells us there are no local hidden variables, there is nothing to know than what QM can give us.
– Danu Mar 22 '14 at 10:09
1

possible duplicate of What combinations of realism, non-locality, and contextuality are ruled out in quantum theory? – Danu Mar 22 '14 at 10:46
3

The common sense of young self-respecting humans is what it violates. – BMS Mar 22 '14 at 13:44
1

@Danu Well, it is Bell's theorem plus certain experimental results that tell us that. The theorem just says that a theory with local hidden variables in distinguishable from one without them. And it doesn't violate anything, except the expectations that BMS refers to. – dmckee --- ex-moderator kitten Mar 22 '14 at 17:30

What does Bell's Theorem really violate?

0 Answers0