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I have the following definition of a general correlation function $$ \langle \Phi(x_1)\dots \Phi(x_n)\rangle = \frac{1}{Z} \int [d\Phi] \Phi(x_1)\dots\Phi(x_n)e^{-S[\Phi]} $$ I have only just started to learn about these functions, so could someone explain what this equation actually means? I see that parts are reminiscent of what you find in statistical mechanics, such as $Z$ denoting the partition function and $\exp(-S[\Phi])$ denoting the weight function or Boltzmann factor, and I think $[d\Phi]$ stands for the integration measure over a set or family of fields, so the bracketed notation emphasizes that, rather than an integration over points. But I can't make sense of all the pieces collectively.

My other question is to do with a derivation in the book by Di Francesco 'Conformal Field Theory' P.43. He defines the quantity $$ \langle X \rangle = \frac{1}{Z} \int [d\Phi'] (X + \delta X) e^{-S[\Phi] - \int d x \partial_{\mu}j^{\mu}_a \omega_a(x)}, $$ where $X$ is a collection of fields and $\delta X$ is its variation under the transformation. He then expands this result to first order in $\omega(x)$ to obtain $$\langle \delta X \rangle = \int d x \partial_{\mu}\langle j^{\mu}_a(x)X\rangle\omega_a(x)$$ and then identifies $$\delta X = -i\sum_{i=1}^{n} (\Phi(x_1)\dots G_a \Phi(x_i)\dots \Phi(x_n))\omega_a (x_i)$$ but I am not sure how he obtained these two equations.

Any help would be great, many thanks.

innisfree
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CAF
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1 Answers1

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For any (local) observable $\mathcal{O}$, its expectation value is defined as

$$ \langle \mathcal{O} \rangle = \frac{1}{Z}\int \mathcal{D}\Phi\mathcal{O}\mathrm{e}^{-S_E[\Phi]}$$

where

$$ Z = \int \mathcal{D}\Phi\mathrm{e}^{-S_E[\Phi]}$$

is indeed called the partition function. My writing $S_E$ is intended to show that this is for a Euclidean theory (i.e. a theory on a Riemannian manifold), for a Minkowskian theory (i.e. a theory on a Lorentzian manifold), one would have to add some $\mathrm{i}$ by Wick rotation. I have used $\mathcal{D}\Phi$ instead of $[\mathrm{d}\Phi]$ to denote the measure on the space of field configurations, both notations are widely used. It is important to note that, in most cases, this measure cannot be rigorously constructed and is only defined in some regularization procedure, but naively you can think of it as any kind of integration over the space of all possible field configurations $\Phi : \Sigma \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, if $\Sigma$ is your spacetime manifold.

Now, your intuition about this thing are basically correct - $\mathrm{e}^{-S_E[\Phi]}$ is indeed a Boltzmann-like weighting factor, that, in the QFT case, weighs different field configurations $\Phi$. It is obvious that this factor will be maximal at minimal $S_E[\Phi]$, so the classically realized field configuration $\Phi_0$ for which $S_E[\Phi_0]$ is a minimum of the action contributes the most to this integral. The expectation value of the observable is indeed defined as an exact analogon to classical statististical mechanics.

You write something about a transformation, and from the context of Ward identities, I am assuming that you are talking about a gauge transformation, which should be a symmetry of the theory. Explicitly, the transformation is infintesimally given by

$$ \Phi \mapsto (1 + \mathrm{i}\omega_a(x)T^a)\Phi \equiv \Phi' \tag{1}$$

where the $T^a$ are generators of the symmetry group. Being a symmetry of the theory means that no observable may change its value under the transformation. We denote quantities after transformation by primes. Looking at some observable $\mathcal{O}$ (your $X$), we must have that

$$ \langle \mathcal{O} \rangle = \frac{1}{Z}\int \mathcal{D}\Phi\mathcal{O}\mathrm{e}^{-S_E[\Phi]} \overset{!}{=} \frac{1}{Z'}\int \mathcal{D}\Phi' (\mathcal{O} + \delta\mathcal{O})\mathrm{e}^{-S_E[\Phi]-\int\mathrm{d}^d x \partial_\mu j^\mu_a \omega_a(x)}$$

We now assume that our symmetry is non-anomalous, i.e. $\mathcal{D}\Phi' = \mathcal{D}\Phi$. Then, for the equality to hold, we have:

$$\int \mathcal{D}\Phi\mathcal{O}\mathrm{e}^{-S_E[\Phi]} \overset{!}{=} \int \mathcal{D}\Phi (\mathcal{O} + \delta\mathcal{O})\mathrm{e}^{-S_E[\Phi]-\int\mathrm{d}^d x \partial_\mu j^\mu_a \omega_a(x)}$$

If you now expand $\mathrm{e}^{-\int\mathrm{d}^d x \partial_\mu j^\mu_a \omega_a(x)}$ to first order in $\omega_a$, you will get $\langle \mathcal{O} \rangle$ on both sides of the equation, which cancels, and the remaining terms are precisely the Ward identities, i.e. the first equation you asked about.

The second equation follows from doing the explicit transformation on $\mathcal{O}$: (Assuming, as you said, that the $G_a$ are the generators $T^a$ of the transformation): Look again at $(1)$. Since you said that $\mathcal{O}$ is a collection of fields, it is

$$ \mathcal{O} = \prod_{i=1}^n \Phi(x_i)$$

for some $n$. Now, carry out $(1)$ on every field $\Phi$ and keep only the terms at most first order in $\omega_a$. This is exactly your $\delta \mathcal{O}$.

(This is "exact" since we consider an infinitesimal gauge transformation, anyways. There are rigorous foundations in Lie theory for this "throwing away" of higher order terms. Nevertheless, it is quite important to carry these tricks the physicist likes so much oneself, since the answer coming out is correct.)

ACuriousMind
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  • Hi ACuriousMind, upon expanding, I am left with $$\langle \delta X \rangle = \int d^d x (\partial_{\mu}j^{\mu}_a) \omega_a(x) \cdot \frac{1}{Z}\int [d\Phi](X+\delta X)e^{-S[\Phi]}$$ but I don't see how the result follows from this. Also, in my notation, it looks like my $G_a \rightarrow T_a$ in yours. Thanks. – CAF Jul 15 '14 at 13:58
  • @CAF Move the $\partial_\mu j_a^\mu$ into the $\Phi$ integral, this will directly yield $\partial_\mu \langle j_a^\mu (X + \delta X) \rangle$. And the $\delta X$ you can throw away, since $\omega_a \delta X$ is second order in $\omega_a$ (the change $\delta X$ under transformation must be at least of order 1 in the transformation parameter). – ACuriousMind Jul 15 '14 at 14:07
  • Thanks, but wouldn't writing something like $\partial_{\mu} \langle j^{\mu}_a X \rangle$ suggest that the partial acts on everything in the brackets $\langle \dots \rangle$? – CAF Jul 15 '14 at 14:16
  • @CAF: Ah, the eternal struggle with notation. Yes and no. $\partial_\mu$ acts upon precisely one $x_i$ coordinate - and here, it's the one $j_a^\mu$ depends on, so the $X$ is left untouched by it. I agree it's a weird way to write it, but that's how it's customary. (by the way, let me also know if the way to get your second equation I indicated in my updated answer satisfies you) – ACuriousMind Jul 15 '14 at 14:20
  • I see, so writing that out more explicitly $\partial_{\mu}\langle j^{\mu}a X\rangle = \partial{\mu}\langle j^{\mu}a \Phi(x_1)\dots \Phi(x_n)\rangle$ and all the $\Phi(x_i)$ are untouched by the $\partial{\mu}$? Before I understand your updated answer, what does the quantity $\langle \Phi(x_1)\dots \Phi(x_n) \rangle$ represent? As I read it, we are multiplying together the value of the field at different positions $x_i$ defined on some base manifold and then taking the average of this quantity over some domain containing all points $x_i$? – CAF Jul 15 '14 at 14:26
  • @CAF: For a discussion of my view of the significance of n-point functions, see this answer – ACuriousMind Jul 15 '14 at 14:30
  • I understood the rest of your argument, but most of what was in the other answer you reference was beyond me at the moment. But thank you anyway. What does it mean to say two quasi primary fields are correlated? And if the correlator $\langle \Phi_1(x_1)\Phi_2(x_2)\rangle$ vanishes we say that the fields are not correlated? – CAF Jul 15 '14 at 17:40
  • @CAF: What I have discussed here (and in the other answer) is general QFT stuff and not specific to CFTs, which I only know well in two dimensions. But, in general, the 2-point function (the correlator of two fields) gives you a measure for the probability that a state created by one field at $x_1$ will become the state at $x_2$ created by the other. Since we have state-field correspondence in CFTs, the 2-point function is basically the inner product on the space of states. – ACuriousMind Jul 15 '14 at 17:46
  • Do you mean to say that the correlator is a measure of field 1 at some position x_1 taking on the value of field 2 at position x_2 when the transformation is enforced? So a vanishing correlator would imply there is zero probability of this happening. Thanks – CAF Jul 15 '14 at 19:53
  • Did you catch my last comment above? – CAF Jul 16 '14 at 09:13
  • @CAF: It has nothing to do with the transformation. One often calls the 2-point function the propagator, because it tells you the probability (amplitude, I think) that the state at $x_1$ (don't forget that these are spacetime positions) will turn into the state at $x_2$. (This is not entirely correct since the fields are not always precise creation operators, one has to do the full LSZ deduction to see the origin of this interpretation) A vanishing correlator means that the state at $x_1$ cannot turn into the state at $x_2$, which should be the case for space-like distances. – ACuriousMind Jul 16 '14 at 12:41
  • Ah, so you mean that it is a measure that the state at $x_1$ becomes the state at $x_2$ via time evolution of the fields? I am just trying to figure out what would cause the change - that is why I thought initially it would be the transformation. Thanks very much. – CAF Jul 16 '14 at 13:02
  • @CAF: Yep, that's what I was trying to say. I don't know if Francesco discusses the LSZ formalizm in QFT, but if he doesn't you should (sooner or later) definitely track down a book that does! – ACuriousMind Jul 16 '14 at 13:05
  • Hi ACuriousMind, do you mind taking a look at my other thread along the same lines as this one?http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/126837/constructing-ward-identity-associated-with-conserved-currents – CAF Jul 17 '14 at 11:41