In Griffiths's Introduction to Quantum Mechanics, he says that the time dependence of an expectation value is $$\frac{d\langle Q\rangle}{dt}=\frac{i}{\hbar}\langle [H,Q]\rangle+\langle \frac{\partial Q}{\partial t}\rangle$$ And I also saw a lecture note saying that time dependence of an expectation value is: $$\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\langle \hat{Q}(t)\rangle=-\frac{i}{h}\langle [\hat{Q}, \hat{H}]\rangle$$
I know they are saying the same thing. For me the second one is quite easy to understand. But how can I understand the first one?