Mathematically, you find that the wave function of a particle $\Psi (x,t)$ moves with the same velocity as the velocity of the particle ($v_{particle} = v_{group}$).
Is there a reason why the particle velocity should not equal the phase velocity?
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Related: http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/16063/2451 , http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/34214/2451 , http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/36242/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Sep 07 '14 at 06:21
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See this article for a pretty good description. – John Rennie Sep 07 '14 at 15:03