The thing is there are a variety of different opinions that, since they can not be distinguished by experiment, are around and used by different people to interpret experiments.
The conventional view of quantum mechanics, although it has eroded over time, is that a sharp disctinction has to be made between the classical and the quantum. The apparatus has to be described classicaly, while the quantum describes the measurement results of the experiment. Von Neumann has then tried to show that the distinction need not be sharp and that you can include the apparatus in the quantum description, but it then has to be observed itself by another apparatus which has to be described classically. Wigner argued that this regression of the quantum/classical divide can be carried up to the mind, hence why there is a lot of woo latching onto these ideas, because they seem to justify the importance of the human mind over anything else in the world.
Other approaches have argued that there is no distinction between classical and quantum, at least. One is the Many Worlds Interpretation, which states that a superposition of states is representing actually realized states but in different universes. Another is the Bohmian or pilotwave interpretation, which states that the wave equation is describing a wave that guides particles. An extra equation is then supplemented to the Schrödinger equation to show how this guiding happens. In both theories, there is no need to speak about measurement, at least, not in any deeper sense than what would be done in classical physics.
Here's a non-exhaustive list of interpretations of quantum mechanics
So, within the context of the Copenhagen interpretation and the von Neumann/Wigner paradigm, the answer to the title question would be yes, there is a difference between measurement and hitting with another particle. Within the context of Bohmian or MWI interpretations, the answer would be no.