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Knowing that $$\tag{1} L= -mc\sqrt{-\eta_{ab}\frac{d\xi^a}{d\lambda}\frac{d\xi^b}{d\lambda}}$$ we get

$$\tag{2} p_a=\frac{\partial L}{\partial(d\xi^a/d\lambda)} = m\eta_{ab}u^b.$$

How come? If I differentiated this $L$ with respect to

$$\tag{3} d\xi^a/d\lambda$$

I get whole different answer. Shouldn't it be

$$\tag{4} p_a= (-mc)\left(-\eta_{cd}\frac{d\xi^c}{d\lambda}\frac{d\xi^d}{d\lambda}\right)^{-1/2}\left( -\eta_{ab}\frac{d\xi^b}{d\lambda} \right) ~?$$

How was this performed?

JamalS
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    Why keep the square root? Remember that if $L$ satisfies the E-L equation then $L'=f(L)$ will also satisfy them as long as your parameter $\lambda$ is affine. I suggest using $L'=L^2$ to get rid of the square root - it will make things much easier. – Jold Oct 11 '14 at 18:26
  • Related: http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/149082/2451 – Qmechanic Dec 05 '14 at 18:43

1 Answers1

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Your last expression (4) is equal to (2), you just have to realize what does it say. $\lambda$ isn't $\tau$ and $$u^c = \frac{d\xi^c}{d \tau} = \frac{d\xi^c}{d \lambda} \frac{d\lambda}{d \tau}$$ If you look back to your Lagrangian and how it was derived, you should be able to say what is $d\lambda/d\tau$.


To be very explicit, the action of a free relativistic particle is $$ S = -mc^2\int d\tau = -mc^2\int \frac{d\tau}{d\lambda} d\lambda $$ where we have used a reparametrization into a general parameter $\lambda$. Now you have $$L = -mc^2 \frac{d \tau}{d \lambda}$$ When you compare this with your equation (1) and with the knowledge $d\lambda/d\tau= (d\tau/d\lambda)^{-1}$, you should get the expression for $u^c$ in terms of $\lambda$-parametrization very easily. When you put this expression into (2), you will get (4).

Void
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  • I don't understand this. You can certainly choose $\lambda = \tau$ if you want to. – Jold Oct 11 '14 at 18:31
  • Yes, and in that case you would have $d\lambda/d\tau = 1$ as can be verified with use of the formula for $d\lambda/d\tau$ and four-velocity normalization $\eta_{ab}u^a u^b = -1$. – Void Oct 11 '14 at 21:56
  • @void But if I want my parametrization to be $$\lambda$$ how do (2) and (4) equal? They don't, unless -yes- what you mentioned by changing the parameter to $$\tau$$. – PhilosophicalPhysics Oct 12 '14 at 12:37
  • @PhilosophicalPhysics I've added some more hints to the answer, I think it should be quite straightforward now. – Void Oct 12 '14 at 13:13