I was wondering while reading "On the Electrodynamics of moving bodies" by Albert Einstein (1905) (Translated to English).
In the paper, he describes the time as being:
by definition that the “time” required by light to travel from A to B equals the “time” it requires to travel from B to A. Let a ray of light start at the “A time” $t_{\rm A}$from A towards B, let it at the “B time” $t_{\rm B}$ be reflected at B in the direction of A, and arrive again at A at the “A time” $t'_{\rm A}$.
It sounds completely normal however the word "reflected" always intrigued me as normally when I bounce a tennis ball (for analogy of reflection), there is this time duration from with it moves downwards then it moves up towards my hand again, I noticed during this time the ball will be deforming in order to give it time to get the time to "spring" back up towards me.
Similarly, I am wondering even though light travels at $c$ in all time-frames and of course all-reference frames, will light not have any time to change it's direction? If there is $0$ time difference does this not lead to $\infty$'s from being raised like it does to baryonic matter?
I asked this question as I know that any light-ray\photon has a given momentum proportional to its energy like so: $\vec{p} = \frac{E}{c}$ and normally change in momentum direction causes the deformation.
I cannot manage to comprehend how the direction of the photon just changes without any time being passed it seems very nonphysical. I can imagine an light wave being reflected how ever not at a normal incidence (where $\theta = {0}$ degrees as the entire waves would simply collide and annihilate each other).
If there is an time difference it may lead to following situations, the speed for $c$ would change from $t_B - t_A = t'_{\rm A} - t_B$ into this: $t_B - t_A \ne t'_{\rm A} - t'_B$
The change is from $t_B$ to $t'_B$ where $t'_B$ is the new time from when the direction of the light is again heading towards point $A$ after the brief delay between the reflection. This therefore creates a inequality between both expression therefore we cannot calculate $c$ in that way as Einstein proposed as the time difference between $t_A$ and $t_B$ is not invariant and therefore we can say lights velocity is not invariant as Einstein concluded.
Before few get wrong message, I am not criticizing nor suggesting Einsteins work is wrong in fact just trying to get hang of this concept.