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Stress-energy tensor for electromagnetic field is given by $$T^{\mu\nu}=\frac1{4\pi}(F^{\mu\alpha}F^{\nu}{}_\alpha-\frac14 g^{\mu\nu} F_{\alpha\beta}F^{\alpha\beta}).$$

My textbook (unpublished textbook by Blandford and Kip Thorne) says that the stress tensor consists of:

  • A pressure $P_\perp=\textbf E^2/8\pi$ orthogonal to $\textbf E$ and a pressure $P_\perp=\textbf B^2/8\pi$ orthogonal to $\textbf B$.

  • A tension $P_\parallel= \textbf E^2/8\pi$ along $\textbf E$ and a tension $P_\parallel=\textbf B^2/8\pi$ along $\textbf B^2$.

I had written down the full expression of the components of the stress-energy tensor $T$ and i haven't got a clue of what these statements mean, both qualitatively and quantatively. Can someone clarify this issue by explaining me the meaning of the aforementioned "pressure orthogonal to $E$ and $B$" and "stress along $E$ and $B$"?

Qmechanic
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finnlim
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  • Closely related to the magnetic pressures: http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/108353/ – Kyle Kanos Nov 10 '14 at 19:07
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    This is a pretty extensive topic, probably not something that can be answered in this format. I have a presentation of this sort of thing in section 10.6 of my SR book, http://www.lightandmatter.com/sr/ –  Nov 10 '14 at 19:23
  • And, when confused, you're probably best going and writing all of the components out in Minkowski spacetime, using the usual expansion of $F^{ab}$ in terms of the components of $E$ and $B$. – Zo the Relativist Nov 10 '14 at 22:11

1 Answers1

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Your version of the stress tensor matches what's currently on the Wikipedia link under

Electromagnetic stress–energy tensor
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_stress%E2%80%93energy_tensor

except for having $μ_0$ in place of your $4π$: $$T^{μν} = \frac{1}{μ_0}\left(F^{μα}{F^ν}_α - \frac{1}{4} g^{μν} F_{αβ}F^{αβ}\right),$$ and with your metric $g_{μν}$ being written there as the Minkowski metric $η_{μν}$. A close examination of the context indicates that it is using the conventions (which it didn't spell out, explicitly): $$ \left(x^0, x^1, x^2, x^3\right) = (ct, x, y, z), \hspace 1em F_{0i} = \frac {E_i} c, \hspace 1em F_{ij} = B^k, \\ η_{00} = -1, \hspace 1em η_{0i} = 0 = η_{i0}, \hspace 1em η_{ij} = δ_{ij} $$ as $i = 1, 2, 3$ and $(i,j,k)$ range cyclically over $(1,2,3)$, $(2,3,1)$ and $(3,1,2)$; and with $F_{μν} = -F_{νμ}$. This yields the components listed in the article: $$ T^{00} = \frac 1 2 \left(ε_0 E^2 + \frac{B^2}{μ_0}\right) = \frac {ε_0} 2 \left(E^2 + B^2 c^2\right), \\ \left(T^{10}, T^{20}, T^{30}\right) = \frac{×}{μ_0 c} = ε_0c× = \left(T^{01}, T^{02}, T^{03}\right), \\ T^{ij} = -ε_0 E_i E_j - \frac{B_i B_j}{μ_0} + δ^{ij} \left(ε_0 E^2 + \frac{B^2}{μ_0}\right) = -ε_0 \left(E_iE_j + B^iB^jc^2 - \frac 1 2 δ^{ij} \left(E^2 + B^2 c^2\right)\right), $$ where $ε_0 = 1/(c^2 μ_0)$. Under your convention, $ε_0 = 1/(8πc^2)$. The last term can be written in tensor-dyad form as: $$-ε_0 \left( + c^2 - \frac 1 2 \left(E^2 + B^2 c^2\right)\right).$$

The authors' analysis is, at best, sloppy, if that's what they really wrote. They're saying, just look at the $$ and $$ parts separately: $$-ε_0 \left( - \frac 1 2 E^2\right), \hspace 1em -\frac{1}{μ_0} \left( - \frac 1 2 B^2\right).$$ More genrally, consider for any vector $$, the corresponding expression $- + ½ V^2$. Suppose the vector is in the $x$ direction with $ = V$, where $(, , )$ will be used here to denote the unit vectors, respectively, for the $x$, $y$ and $z$ directions. Then $$- + \frac 1 2 V^2 = -V^2 + \frac 1 2 (++)V^2 = \frac{V^2}{2} (-++).$$ The dyad has the following principal components: $-½ V^2$ in the direction parallel to $$ and $+½ V^2$ in all directions perpendicular to $$. Now, apply this separately to the $$ and $$ parts, above, to get the desired results. The eigenvalues for the $$ part will be $±B^2/(2μ_0)$ or, in your notation $±B^2/(8π)$, while the eigenvalues for the $$ part will be $±ε_0E^2/2$, or in your notation, $±E^2/(8πc^2)$.

In other words, they were taking eigenvectors/eigenvalues ... but only for the $$ and $$ parts separately. Instead, you should actually be looking at the eigenvalues and eigenvectors for the whole thing, not just for the parts. You should be perform the eigenvector/eigenvalue problem on either the 3×3 matrix of the spatial-coordinate components of the stress tensor, if you're looking for the decomposition of that, or else for the full 4×4 matrix of the stress tensor, itself.

For convenience, we'll write $ = /μ_0$. Consider instead the following transform: $$\sqrt{ε_0} = \cos θ - \sin θ, \hspace 1em \sqrt{μ_0} = \cos θ + \sin θ$$ for some vectors $$, $$ and angle $θ$ later to be determined. Then: $$ \frac{ε_0 E^2 + μ_0 H^2}2 = \frac{m^2 + n^2}2, \\ \frac{ε_0 E^2 - μ_0 H^2}2 = \frac{m^2 - n^2}2 \cos{2θ} - · \sin{2θ}, \\ \sqrt{ε_0 μ_0} · = · \cos{2θ} + \frac{m^2 - n^2}2 \sin{2θ}, \\ \sqrt{ε_0 μ_0} × = ×. $$

Now impose the requirement that $$ and $$ be orthogonal: $· = 0$. Then $$\sqrt{ε_0μ_0} · \cos{2θ} = \frac{ε_0 E^2 - μ_0 H^2}2 \sin{2θ}.$$ Therefore, $$ \cos{2θ} = \frac{ε_0 E^2 - μ_0 H^2}2, \hspace 1em \sin{2θ} = \sqrt{ε_0 μ_0} ·,$$ for some factor $$ that's determined by the condition that ${\cos}^2{2θ} + {\sin}^2{2θ} = 1$. From this condition, we find: $$^2 = {\left(\frac{ε_0 E^2 - μ_0 H^2}2\right)}^2 + {\left(\sqrt{ε_0μ_0} ·\right)}^2 = {\left(\frac{ε_0 E^2 + μ_0 H^2}2\right)}^2 - {\left|\sqrt{ε_0μ_0} ×\right|}^2.$$

Write $$ = \frac{ε_0 E^2 + μ_0 H^2}2 = \frac{m^2 + n^2}2, \hspace 1em = \sqrt{ε_0μ_0} × = ×.$$ Then $$ = \sqrt{^2 - ^2}.$$ Substituting into the equations for $m^2$ and $n^2$, we have: $$\frac{m^2 + n^2}2 = , \hspace 1em \frac{m^2 - n^2}2 = .$$ Thus $$m = \sqrt{ + }, \hspace 1em n = \sqrt{ - }.$$ Denote the unit vectors aligned with $$ and $$, respectively, $$ and $$, and define $ = ×$. Then, we have $$ = \sqrt{ + } , \hspace 1em = \sqrt{ - } , \hspace 1em = × = .$$

In tensor-dyad form, we can write the components $\left(T^{ij}: i, j = 1, 2, 3\right)$ as: $$-ε_0 - μ_0 + \frac{ε_0E^2 + μ_0H^2}2 = - - + ( + + ) ,$$ or, noting that $$ + = ( + ) + ( - ) ,$$ as: $$-ε_0 - μ_0 + \frac{ε_0E^2 + μ_0H^2}2 = - + - .$$ For the other components, we have: $$T^{00} = -, \hspace 1em \left(T^{10}, T^{20}, T^{30}\right) = \left(T^{01},T^{02},T^{03}\right) = × = .$$

For the null field (i.e. where $ε_0E^2 = μ_0H^2$ and $· = 0$), one has $ = 0$ and $ = $, this reduces further to: $$T^{00} = -, \hspace 1em \left(T^{10}, T^{20}, T^{30}\right) = \left(T^{01}, T^{02}, T^{03}\right) = , \hspace 1em \left(T^{ij}: i, j = 1, 2, 3\right) = - .$$

It has not passed my notice that this looks a lot like what you encounter in the quantized version of the field theory. Essentially, this is a directed continuum of photons, with energy density $$ oriented in the direction $$ - the classical version of a photon stream. The stress tensor has eigenvalues (meaning: zero pressure) for the transverse directions $$ and $$ and an $-$ eigenvalue for the longitudinal direction $$.

In your units $μ_0 = 4π$, $ε_0 = 1/{4πc^2}$, $ = μ_0 = 4π$, and: $$ = \frac{ε_0 E^2 + μ_0 H^2}2 = \frac{E^2/c^2 + B^2}{8π}.$$ So, the eigenvalues are 0, for eigenvectors $$ and $$ (i.e. the directions along the plane formed by $$ and $$); and $-(E^2/c^2 + B^2)/{8π}$ for $$ (directions perpendicular to $$ and $$).

For non-null fields, the zero eigenvalues split into $-$ and $+$ along the directions of $$ and $$ respectively. These are axes rotated from the $(/c, )$ frame, with the relations: $$ = \sqrt{ε_0} \cos θ + \sqrt{μ_0} \sin θ, \hspace 1em = \sqrt{μ_0} \cos θ - \sqrt{ε_0} \sin θ$$ with $$\cos{2θ} = \frac{(ε_0 E^2 - μ_0 H^2)/2}{}, \hspace 1em \sin{2θ} = \frac{\sqrt{ε_0μ_0} ·}{}.$$ We can solve for $\cos θ$ and $\sin θ$: $$\cos θ = ±\sqrt{\frac{1 + \cos{2θ}}2} = ±\sqrt{\frac{ + (ε_0 E^2 - μ_0 H^2)/2}{2}}, \\ \sin θ = \text{sgn}(±·) \sqrt{\frac{1 - \cos{2θ}}2} = \text{sgn}(±·) \sqrt{\frac{ - (ε_0 E^2 - μ_0 H^2)/2}{2}}.$$

One can also carry out the eigenvalue/eigenvector analysis for the full 4×4 tensor, rather than just the space-like 3×3 sub-matrix, posing the problem as: $$T^{μν} u_ν = λ g^{μν} u_ν$$ Then, the eigenvectors $$ and $$ become $(0,)$ and $(0,)$, again with respective eigenvalues $-$ and $+$. In place of the eigenvector $$ are two eigenvectors of the form $\left(u_0, \right)$, with: $$- u_0 + = λ g^{00} u_0 = -λ, \hspace 1em u_0 - = λ g^{11} = λ ,$$ leading to the equations: $$( - λ) u_0 = , \hspace 1em u_0 = + λ,$$ or $$^2 - λ^2 = ^2 ⇒ λ = ±, \hspace 1em u_0 = \frac{ ± }{}.$$ The $$ eigenvector and $-$ eigenvalue is now $(( - )/, )$ with eigenvalue $-$, while we also have the fourth eigenvector $(( ± )/, )$ with eigenvalue $$.

Up to powers of $c$, the quantities $$, $$ and $$ are energy-density, momentum-density and mass-density. The null field, which is effectively a directed continuum of photons, therefore has zero mass density, in this sense of the term.

Parts of this analysis predates Einstein. He wasn't the first to pose the formula $E = mc^2$. Nothing in the above is actually specific to relativity, nor even to a vacuum. It can equally well be carried out in a non-relativistic setting, or for isotropic media other than a vacuum (either non-relativistic media, or even relativistic media). In that case, $ε_0$ and $μ_0$ generalize, respectively to $ε$ and $μ$, while $c = 1/\sqrt{ε_0μ_0}$ generalizes to the wave speed, denoted here by $V = 1/\sqrt{εμ}$. Making the various densities dimensionally consistent, $$ would be replaced by $V$, while $$ would be replaced by $V^2$, and their relation with the energy density would become $^2 - ^2 V^2 = ^2 V^4$.

The references of note are the following:

Poincaré's analysis (1900)
"La théorie de Lorentz la physique expérimentale et la physique mathématique”, Revue générale des sciences pures et appliquées 11: 1163-1175.

which I suspect might dovetail into the analysis just done here, and is almost certainly couched firmly in the non-relativistic paradigm (though I haven't looked at it closely yet), versus

Einstein's analysis (1905)
“Ist die Trägheit eines Körpers von seinem Energieinhalt abhängig?”, Annalen der Physik, 18, 639-641, September 1905.

which is more fundamental and bona fide relativistic.

NinjaDarth
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