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I know that a complex field has twice the number of degrees of freedom of a real field, and that fields (in QFT) aren't observables so we don't really care if they are real.

But why the need for complex fields? Is there stuff that doesn't work unless there's a complex field?

Qmechanic
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SuperCiocia
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  • Strictly speaking they are not compulsory. You can still do with real fields by taking multiplets, but sometimes it is more convenient to use complex numbers instead. – Phoenix87 May 04 '15 at 18:23
  • Essentially a duplicate of http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/11396/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic May 04 '15 at 18:32

3 Answers3

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There is no non-trivial one-dimensional representation of $\mathrm{U}(1)$ on a scalar field $\mathbb{R}^4\to\mathbb{R}$, but on complex fields $\mathbb{R}^4\to\mathbb{C}$, we have the one-dimensional "phase" representations by $$\phi\mapsto\mathrm{e}^{e\mathrm{i}\chi}\phi$$ for $e\in\mathbb{Z},\chi\in\mathfrak{u}(1)\cong\mathbb{R}$ for $\mathrm{U}(1)$ parametrized as $\chi\mapsto \mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}\chi}$ (the unit circle in the complex plane).

Since $\mathrm{U}(1)$ is the archetypical example of a continuous (gauge) symmetry (think of electromagnetism), complex scalar fields are an important (toy) model in QFT.

Of course, every complex scalar field may equivalently be replaced by two real scalar fields being its real and imaginary part, so they are not actually needed, but using only real fields may complicate the actual calculations and notations immensely.

When switching from a complex scalar $\phi$ to two real ones $\mathrm{Re}(\phi),\mathrm{Im}(\phi)$, we observe that $$ \mathrm{e}^{e\mathrm{i}\chi}\phi = (\cos(e\chi) + \mathrm{i}\sin(e\chi))(\mathrm{Re}(\phi) + \mathrm{i}\ \mathrm{Im}(\phi))$$ and so, writing the real vector $\widetilde{\phi} = \left( \begin{matrix} \phi_1 := \mathrm{Re}(\phi) \\ \phi_2 := \mathrm{Im}(\phi)\end{matrix}\right)$, we see that the complex one-dimensional representation of $\mathrm{U}(1)$ turns into a two-dimensional real one with $$ \widetilde{\phi}\mapsto R_e(\chi)\widetilde{\phi}$$ with the rotation matrix $$ R_e(\chi) := \left(\begin{matrix}\cos(e\chi) & -\sin(e\chi) \\ \sin(e\chi) & \cos(e\chi)\end{matrix}\right)$$ which is now looking more like a representation of the real 2D rotations $\mathrm{SO}(2)$ (the usual one for $e = 1$). As a real representation, this is irreducible (you cannot diagonalize all rotation matrices at once), so you cannot reduce the degrees of freedom and still have a non-trivial representation of $\mathrm{U}(1)\cong\mathrm{SO}(2)$. Two real d.o.f. are the minimum to have some kind of non-trivial continuous symmetry going on, since $\mathrm{U}(1)$ is the simplest Lie group apart from the un-exciting $\mathbb{R},+$.

ACuriousMind
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  • and why do we need two real fields? As in, why 2 degrees of freedom? Why not 3? – SuperCiocia May 04 '15 at 20:20
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    @SuperCiocia: Because a complex number $z$ is equivalently described by two real numbers $\mathrm{Re}(z)$, $\mathrm{Im}(z)$. – ACuriousMind May 04 '15 at 20:25
  • Yes I know that, I meant why do we need two degrees of freedom for our field theories? Why not 3 or 4? – SuperCiocia May 04 '15 at 20:27
  • @SuoerCiocia: Mainly because, as I say, there is no non-trivial representation of $\mathrm{U}(1)$ (or any other relevant Lie group, for that matter) on one real degree of freedom. You can do a theory of a real scalar, but it will be boring (in particular, it won't have electromagnetism). – ACuriousMind May 04 '15 at 20:32
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What type of fields are you using?

If you are working with spinor fields, the representation of Lorentz transformations is complex. So even if the field is real in some reference frame, if you switch to another reference frame it will become complex. There's no way to avoid complex spinor fields.

Bosoneando
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Actually, you can do without complex fields, at least in some general and important cases, and I don't mean replacing a complex field with two real fields. Schroedinger noted that, in the case of a scalar field interacting with electromagnetic field (the klein-Gordon-Maxwell electrodynamics, or scalar electrodynamics), you can use the so-called unitary gauge, where the scalar field is real. You can also write an equivalent Lagrangian with a real field (please see, e.g., Eq.14 in my article http://akhmeteli.org/akh-prepr-ws-ijqi2.pdf (published in Int'l J. Quantum Information) - the Lagrangian was derived by Takabayashi). What about spinor fields? @Bosoneando, e.g., believes that "There's no way to avoid complex spinor fields". Surprisingly, there is. I showed in http://akhmeteli.org/wp-content/uploads/2011/08/JMAPAQ528082303_1.pdf (published in J. Math. Phys.) (see also http://arxiv.org/abs/1502.02351) that three out of for complex components of the Dirac spinor in the Dirac equation can be algebraically eliminated in a general case. The remaining component can be made real by a gauge transform.

akhmeteli
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  • Hi, @akhmeteli, I'm sorry for the late reply. I hadn't seen your answer before. I have to tell you that your arXiv paper is wrong: You can't take derivatives when you're solving a differential equation. Not all solutions of (5) are solutions of (1). – Bosoneando Jul 11 '16 at 23:41
  • Imagine you want to solve $i\partial_x y=y$, whose solution, $y=C e^{-ix}$, is complex. What you're trying to do is $y = i \partial_x y = i \partial_x(i\partial_x y) = -\partial_x^2 y$, so the solution is $y=A\cos x + B\sin x$, which is real if $A$ and $B$ are. BUT it is not, for general $A$ and $B$, a solution of the original equation. – Bosoneando Jul 11 '16 at 23:41
  • Also, you don't address the main point of my answer: the spinor representation of the Lorentz group are complex. If you require the spinor to be real, you're singling out a reference frame and breaking Lorentz invariance. – Bosoneando Jul 11 '16 at 23:42
  • @Bosoneando: "You can't take derivatives when you're solving a differential equation. Not all solutions of (5) are solutions of (1)." While I agree that "Not all solutions of (5) are solutions of (1)", it does not mean my paper is wrong. Moreover, I explicitly wrote in my preprint: "the set of solutions of equation (5) used to derive equation (27) is broader than the set of solutions of the Dirac equation (cf. [4])." You should specifically show what is wrong in my article, otherwise I'll have to consider your critique unfounded. – akhmeteli Jul 12 '16 at 03:36
  • @Bosoneando: "which is real if A and B are. BUT it is not, for general A and B, a solution of the original equation." Again, you should show what specifically is wrong in my preprint. So far I don't see how this is relevant. – akhmeteli Jul 12 '16 at 03:40
  • @Bosoneando: "If you require the spinor to be real, you're singling out a reference frame and breaking Lorentz invariance." In any frame of reference the Dirac equation is generally equivalent to a 4th order equation for just one component, which can be made real by a gauge transform. So you can do just with one real component. So I stand by the conclusions of my preprint and respectfully reject your critique. If you disagree, please explicitly show which conclusion of my preprint is wrong and why. – akhmeteli Jul 12 '16 at 03:46
  • I love your circular reasoning. To prove that you're not adding new solutions to your equations, in (46) you take derivatives once again, and therefore you're including again the new solutions that you're claiming that don't exist. To be clear: What conclusion is wrong? That your 4th order equation is equivalent to the Dirac equation. Why? Because you're adding new solutions that spoil the (non-)reality and Lorentz symmetry of the actual spinors. – Bosoneando Jul 12 '16 at 08:39
  • @Bosoneando: Thank you for at least being more specific this time, however, the conclusion that you quote is not wrong. I specifically explain (immediately after Eq. (50)) in what sense the equation is generally equivalent to the Dirac equation, and then I prove the equivalence, establishing a one-to-one correspondence between the solutions of the equations. Therefore, until you show me an error in my proof, I stand by my conclusion. I will comment on the Lorentz symmetry later, but let me emphasize now that I don't see what conclusion of my paper is wrong. – akhmeteli Jul 12 '16 at 11:58
  • I understand what you mean by the equivalence of the two equations, and I'll repeat you where the error in your proof is: equation (46). You claim that "[(27)] implies the Dirac equation for the Dirac spinor restored from its components $\bar{\xi}\psi$ using equations (24,33,39,40)". But equation (40) DOES NOT imply equation (50) because you can't do equation (46). There is nothing more to discuss there. – Bosoneando Jul 12 '16 at 14:19
  • @Bosoneando: I agree that (40) does not imply (50), but it does not have to. However, (40) together with (24),(33),(39) and (27) and some formulas derived earlier do imply (50). (24),(33),(39),(40) just make a recipe to restore the Dirac spinor from its component. So I respectfully reject your critique. However, I regret that the proof in the preprint is rather complex. Probably, I should have explained it better. – akhmeteli Jul 12 '16 at 17:48
  • @Bosoneando: As for Lorentz symmetry, it's that the field transformation becomes more complex: the spinor and the vector transform together, as you have an ordinary Lorentz transform plus a gauge transform to keep the component of the spinor real. So the fields at a point transform transform together with the fields in the vicinity of the point. – akhmeteli Jul 13 '16 at 00:43