I have been told [Warning: I leave this because it's what I asked and allows to understand the dialogues in the comments, but Azad, whom I thank, has pointed that the formula does not hold in general in the form it is expressed] that the angular momentum of and rigid body with respect to any point $P$ can always be expressed as $$\mathbf{L}_{P}=\mathbf{r}_{cm}\times M\mathbf{v}_{cm}+\big(\sum_im_iR_i^2\big)\boldsymbol{\omega}$$ where $\mathbf{r}_{cm}$ is the position of the centre of mass with respect to $P$, $M$ the mass of the body, $R_i$ the distance of the $i$-th point, having mass $m_i$, composing the body, and $\sum_im_iR_i^2=I$ its moment of inertia with respect to the instantaneous axis of the rotation around the centre of mass of angular velocity $\boldsymbol{\omega}$.
I know that the velocity $\mathbf{v}_i$ of each point $P_i$, having mass $m_i$, of a rigid body of mass $M$ can be see as the sum of a translation velocity of one of its points $C$ plus a rotation velocity around that point: $\mathbf{v}_i=\mathbf{v}_{C}+\boldsymbol{\omega}\times\overrightarrow{CP_i}$. If we chose $C$ as the centre of mass I see that $$\mathbf{L}_{cm}=\sum_i \overrightarrow{CP_i}\times m_i\mathbf{v}_{i}=\sum_i \overrightarrow{CP_i}\times m_i\mathbf{v}_{cm}+\sum_i \overrightarrow{CP_i}\times m_i(\boldsymbol{\omega}\times\overrightarrow{CP_i})$$$$=\sum_i \overrightarrow{CP_i}\times m_i(\boldsymbol{\omega}\times\overrightarrow{CP_i}) $$because, if I am not wrong, $\sum_i \overrightarrow{CP_i}\times m_i\mathbf{v}_C=(\sum_i m_i\overrightarrow{CP_i})\times\mathbf{v}_C=\mathbf{0}$ since $\sum_i m_i\overrightarrow{CP_i}$ is the position of the centre of mass with respect to itself, which is $\mathbf{0}$.
How can it be proved that $\sum_i \overrightarrow{CP_i}\times m_i(\boldsymbol{\omega}\times\overrightarrow{CP_i})=(\sum_im_iR_i^2)\boldsymbol{\omega}$? I have searched a lot on the Internet and on books, but I find nothing. To give some background of mine, I have studied nothing of analytical mechanics. I find the formula very, very interesting both in itself and because, if the moment of inertia does not depend upon time, $\forall t\quad I(t)= I(t_0)$, the above expression can be differentiated to get the formula of the resultant torque with respect to the centre of mass $\sum\boldsymbol{\tau}_{cm}=\frac{d\mathbf{L}_{cm}}{dt}=I\boldsymbol{\alpha}_{cm}$ where $\boldsymbol{\alpha}$ is the angular acceleration around the centre of mass. I heartily thank you for any answer!
Some unfruitful trials: by using the "BAC CAB identity" as suggested by Azad, whom I heartily thank, $\mathbf{a}\times(\mathbf{b}\times\mathbf{c})=(\mathbf{a}\cdot\mathbf{c})\mathbf{b}-(\mathbf{a}\cdot\mathbf{b})\mathbf{c}$, I can see that$$\sum_i \overrightarrow{CP_i}\times m_i(\boldsymbol{\omega}\times\overrightarrow{CP_i})=\sum_im_i\|\overrightarrow{CP_i}\|^2\boldsymbol{\omega}-m_i(\overrightarrow{CP_i}\cdot\boldsymbol{\omega})\overrightarrow{CP_i}$$which, by decomposing every $\overrightarrow{CP_i}$ into an axial component $\mathbf{A}_i$ and a radial component $\mathbf{R}_i$, whose norms respectively are $A_i$ and $R_i$, with $R_i$ as the distance from $i$ to the axis of rotation, becomes $$\sum_im_iR_i^2\boldsymbol{\omega}+\sum_i m_i A_i^2\boldsymbol{\omega}-m_i(\mathbf{A}_i\cdot\boldsymbol{\omega})\overrightarrow{CP_i}$$but I cannot prove that $\sum_i m_i A_i^2\boldsymbol{\omega}-m_i(\mathbf{A}_i\cdot\boldsymbol{\omega})\overrightarrow{CP_i}=\mathbf{0}$.
No problem! I thank you, instead, because your and luffy_csm's ideas have lead me to think more about the issue and understand the truth. If you want to briefly post that as an answer...
– Self-teaching worker May 12 '15 at 19:15