My question is whether the effective vertex for $\gamma\to3\pi$ can be derived directly from the anomaly (given in the first equation below), in analogy with the $\pi^0\to2\gamma$ vertex? As far as I understand, based on the anomaly one can derive the Wess-Zumino-Witten (WZW) action which contains many more various vertices aside from $\pi^0\to2\gamma$ and $\gamma\to3\pi$. The derivation is however quite tedious and I do not understand it well. On the other hand, the $\pi^0\to2\gamma$ term can be deduced directly from the anomaly, as is shown below. I do not see how to generalize this reasoning to include $\gamma\to3\pi$ vertex but I believe this should be possible. The question is how?
The amplitude for the $\pi^0\to2\gamma$ decay gets contribution from the anomaly in the chiral current $$\partial_\mu J^{\mu3}_A=-\frac{e^2}{32\pi^2}\tilde{F}^{\mu\nu}F_{\mu\nu}$$ According to my understanding, this can be done as follows. From the effective pion Lagrangian $$\mathcal{L}=\frac{f_\pi^2}{4}Tr\left(\partial_\mu U \partial^\mu U^{-1}\right)+O(f_\pi^{0})$$ one finds that in terms of the pion fields the chiral current is given as $$J^{\mu3}_A=f_\pi\partial^\mu\pi^0+O(f_\pi^{-1})$$ Hence, combining this with the anomaly equation one obtains $$\partial_\mu\partial^\mu\pi^0=\frac{e^2}{32\pi^2f_\pi}\tilde{F}^{\mu\nu}F_{\mu\nu}+O(f_\pi^{-2})$$ This equation of motion would follow from the corresponding term in the effective Lagrangian at order $O(f_{\pi}^{-1})$ $$\Delta \mathcal{L}=\pi^0\frac{e^2}{32\pi^2f_\pi}\tilde{F}^{\mu\nu}F_{\mu\nu}$$
This coupling term indeed produces the correct amplitude for $\pi^0\to2\gamma$.
Alternatively, this term could be derived by expanding the WZW action, which encompasses the effects of anomaly to all orders in $f_{\pi}$. I do not quite understand how the WZW action is derived, and that may be the source of my confusion. Anyway, the WZW action includes much more vertices including for example $\gamma\to 3\pi$ $$\Delta\mathcal{L}\propto \epsilon^{\mu\alpha\beta\gamma}\epsilon^{abc}A_\mu \partial_\alpha\pi^a\partial_\beta\pi^b\partial_\gamma\pi^c$$
Contrary to the vertex for $\pi\to2\gamma$ this one contains a single photon. It is not clear to me how this term can be derived from the anomaly. However, I believe that this should be possible. Is it?
A side question: $\pi^0\to2\gamma$ piece is clearly not isospin-invariant, since it contains only the $\pi^0$ field. Can one think of the WZW action as the one restoring the symmetry? Can one reconstruct the full WZW action from this single piece?
Edit: I've run into confusion here. As the axial anomaly shows, the isospin symmetry is broken by the electromagnetic interactions, so my suggestion above makes no sense.