Why do texts on classical mechanics never mention any derivative of position beyond the jerk, while at the same time being general in the sense of using of generalized coordinates?
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1Related: Why are there only derivatives to the first order in the Lagrangian? – John Rennie Jul 12 '15 at 14:37
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@JohnRennie that actually answers my question. – user132181 Jul 12 '15 at 14:44
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Higher order formulations have been discussed many times on Phys.SE, e.g. here, here and links therein. – Qmechanic Jul 12 '15 at 14:58