So I'm pretty certain this question has been asked to death here, but I still can't find a good explanation of a very particular aspect of the virtual displacements in physics.
Background
For clarity, let me list (vaguely) what I do understand, and am not requesting an explanation for
- "What" are virtual displacements?
- "What" does D'Alambert's principle mean?
- Why are virtual displacements necessary in the derivation of the Lagrangian?
- Why are virtual displacements perpendicular to constraint forces?
The real question I guess would be
- How are virtual displacements perpendicular to constraint forces?
Let me be more specific. As a note, there are various references for this, Goldstein for example, but in the interest of being concise I'm going to particularly reference Fetter and Walecka's Continuum book, page 51.
Setup
We have some $f_j (x_1,\dots,x_n,t) = c_j $ for $j = 1,\dots,k$ constraint equations, where $k$ reflects the number of (holonomic?) constraints to which the system is subject. These $k$ constraint equations may be either (a) explicitly time dependent (rheonomous) or (b) implicitly time dependent (scleronomous).
From these $k$ equations, we may identify $n-k$ generalized coordinates, $q_\sigma$, with which we can parameterize the positions of the particles in the system according to
$$x_i = x_i(q_1,q_2,\dots,q_{n-k},t)$$
Problem
Now, and this makes sense, any infinitesimal displacement in the system yields a change in any $x_i$ coordinate
$$dx_i = \sum_{\sigma=1}^{n-k} \frac{\partial x_i}{\partial q_\sigma}dq_\sigma + \frac{\partial x_i}{\partial t}dt \tag{eq. 1}$$
Now, what makes a lot less sense is why a variation of the variable $x_i$ yields
$$\delta x_i = \sum_{\sigma=1}^{n-k} \frac{\partial x_i}{\partial q_\sigma}\delta q_\sigma \tag{eq. 2}$$
Now, unless it comes with a (reasonably) rigorous mathematical analysis, I will not accept the following answer
- Variations are instantaneous, i.e. occur in zero time.
- In other words, $dt = 0$.
Qualitatively, sure, that answer is fine. But quantitatively, I don't see how it's well grounded within the framework of calculus. In essence, it's too "handwavy" an argument for me.
What I am really interested in is how the requirement that constraint forces and virtual displacements must be perpendicular leads to the definition (eq.2) of virtual displacements. Accordingly, answers to any of the following are what I am looking for
- Quantitatively, what steps must you take to go from (eq.1) to (eq.2)?
- Why, if time were not standing still, would a virtual displacement not be perpendicular to a constraint force?
- Virtual displacements and infinitesimals are identical in scleronomous systems. In a rheonomous system, how does the definition of a virtual displacement ensure that it is always perpendicular to a time dependent constraint force? How is this different from the way an infinitesimal displacement might behave?
I guess another way of rephrasing would be to is a virtual displacement identical to a variational derivative? and if so where is rulebook for such derivatives?
– GeneralPancake Aug 31 '15 at 21:35