In a context of quantum mechanics, why does:
$$ \langle x | p \rangle = \left(\frac{1}{2\pi\hbar}\right)^{3/2} e^{ipx/\hbar} $$
Is there any proof for this?
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Hi Tom. I've typseset what I think you're asking. If I've got this wrong it should be obvious how to modify the Latex to correct it or you could just roll back the edit. – John Rennie Nov 25 '15 at 06:22
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I was totally forget about how to edit latex in stackoverflow. Thanks! This is exactly what I wanted to write! – Tom Nov 25 '15 at 06:27
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@DanielSank Thanks, that is exactly what I wanted. I will close this question. – Tom Nov 25 '15 at 06:33
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Related: http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/41880/2451 – Qmechanic Nov 25 '15 at 07:00