,I got one confusion when reading Goldstein's Classical Mechanics (page 20, third edition). After getting the equation $$ \sum \left\{\left[\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}t}{\left(\frac{\partial T}{\partial \dot{q_{j}}} \right)} - \frac{\partial T}{\partial q_{j} } \right] - Q_{j} \right\} \ \delta q_{j} = 0 $$ then it says that
Note that in a system of Cartesian coordinates the partial derivative of $T$ with respect to $q_{j}$ vanishes. Thus, speaking in the language of differential geometry, this term arises from the curvature of the coordinates $q_{j}$. In polar coordinates, e.g., it is in the partial derivative of $T$ with respect to an angle coordinate that the centripetal acceleration term appears.
My question is: Is the above statement general, i.e., that the kinetic energy $T$ does not depend on the position. I wonder why velocity can't depend on the particle's position vector. I mean, why couldn't we have cases where $\vec{v} = \vec{v}(\vec r ,t)$, so that the kinetic energy depends on $q_{j}$ or $\vec{r}$?
I will use the example of the second answer in this post What is the difference between implicit, explicit, and total time dependence, i.e. $\frac{\partial \rho}{\partial t}$ and $\frac{d \rho} {dt}$?
the second answer,
suppose we have a velocity distribution of gas whose function is $\vec {v}=\vec {v}(x,y,z,t)$
then the partial derivative with respect to $x$ is
$$\frac{\partial T} {\partial x}=mv\frac{\partial v} {\partial x}$$
since $v$ depends on $x$, I think in this case. $\frac{\partial T}{\partial q_{j} }$ does not vanish.