When I began studying physics, by myself, on a universitary textbook, F.J. Keller, W.E. Gettys , M.J. Skove, Physics, about one year ago, I believed that all the integrals that I was going to find in such elementary texts of classical physics were, as WolframMathworld says, Riemann integrals, although I had studied a very little bit of Lebesgue integration and functional analysis by following all the volume of A.N. Kolmogorov, S.V. Fomin, Элементы теории функций и функционального анализа (just a few contents more than Introductory real analysis).
Interpretating integrals as Riemann integrals seems to me to be consistent with the language of some physics texts when they talk about summing "infinitesimal" quantities, like "summing infinitesimal masses" $\rho dV$ to calculate the mass $\int_V\rho dV$ of a body, which I would read as a shorter way to say "calculating the limit $\lim_{\delta_P\to 0}\sum_i\bar{\rho}(\boldsymbol{\xi}_i)\Delta V_i$ where $\delta_P$ is the mesh of the partition and $\bar{\rho}(\boldsymbol{\xi}_i)\Delta V_i$, with $\boldsymbol{\xi}_i$ in the small parallelepiped whose volume is $\Delta V_i$, is an approximation of the mass contained the parallelepiped".
Nevertheless, I have recently found a use of the integral signs that confuses me. While studying elementary classical electrodynamics, in particular the Biot-Savart and Ampère's law, I find expressions such as the following one for the magnetic field $$\mathbf{B}(\mathbf{r})=\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\iiint_V \mathbf{J}(\mathbf{l})\times\frac{\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{l}}{\|\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{l}\|^3}\, d^3l$$which cannot be a proper Riemann if $\mathbf{r}\in \bar{V}$. From the way it is manipulated in derivations of Ampère's law such as that found in Wikipedia, I would be inclined to exclude that it is a Lebesgue integrals, either, because, provided that the same sign $\iiint_Vd^3l$ means the same thing in each step*, if $\iiint_V\mathbf{J}(\mathbf{l})\nabla_{r}(\|\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{l}\|^{-1})d^3l$ were a Lebesgue integral it would equates $\mathbf{0}$ and not $-4\pi\mathbf{J}(\mathbf{r})$ as desired, I would say. Since Dirac's $\delta$ appears in functional analysis, I would tend to suppose that $\iiint_Vd^3l$ is just a symbolic notation for a linear operator, but the only linear operator that I can imagine to be defined by $\iiint_V \frac{\mathbf{J}(\mathbf{l})\times(\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{l})}{\|\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{l}\|^3}\, d^3l$ is $$\mathbf{J}\mapsto\int_V \mathbf{J}(\mathbf{l})\times\frac{\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{l}}{\|\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{l}\|^3}\, d\mu_{\mathbf{l}}$$where the image of $\mathbf{J}$ is a Lebesgue integral, again, which brings us back to the same problem described above.
Is there any general principle valid to interpretate what integrals mean (i.e. whether they are Riemann, Lebesgue integrals or whatever else), if nothing is specified by the author, in texts of classical physics? I thank any answerer very much.
*If that were not true, that derivation would be even more complicated to understand, but I am not sure that we can rule the hypothesis that the sign $\iiint_Vd^3l$ is used for different things through the outline of proof out.