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Below, I quote what my physics textbook says.

$$F=kma$$ The units of force are so chosen that this constant of proportionality, $k=1$.Therefore $F=ma$. For this, one unit of force is defined as the amount that produces an acceleration of $1m/s^2$ in an object of mass, $1kg$.

Would it be right to define $1$ Newton as the amount of force it would take to produce an acceleration of $0.5m/s^2$ in an object of mass $2kg$?

Qmechanic
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The Cryptic Cat
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1 Answers1

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Yes, it would be right; and this definition even coincides with the normally used definition.

It would be right also to define the unit "fekaok" which is the force which accelerates the actual mass of your body by $1.337\,$ms$^{-2}$. This would be a good force definition as well, but not be equal to one Newton.

Ilja
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