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Why does dilation invariance often imply proper conformal invariance?
What exactly is the difference between the two? Can someone give an example of a theory which is scale invariant but not conformally invariant?
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Two counterexamples are e.g. given here http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0006037 – Qmechanic May 03 '12 at 13:53
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3This question is answered here and hence essentially a duplicate. – Qmechanic May 03 '12 at 13:55
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@Qmechanic: the answers to that previous question are now outdated due to some progress over the last two years. – Vibert Sep 20 '13 at 06:30