Lorentz Transformations
Suppose we call the lab frame the K-frame and a frame moving at velocity, $\mathbf{v}$, relative to the K-frame called the K'-frame. Then we can express the electromagnetic fields in the K'-frame in terms of the K-frame fields as:
$$
\begin{align}
\mathbf{E}' & = \gamma \left( \mathbf{E} + \boldsymbol{\beta} \times \mathbf{B} \right) - \frac{\gamma^{2}}{\gamma + 1} \boldsymbol{\beta} \left( \boldsymbol{\beta} \cdot \mathbf{E} \right) \tag{1a} \\
\mathbf{B}' & = \gamma \left( \mathbf{B} - \boldsymbol{\beta} \times \mathbf{E} \right) - \frac{\gamma^{2}}{\gamma + 1} \boldsymbol{\beta} \left( \boldsymbol{\beta} \cdot \mathbf{B} \right) \tag{1b}
\end{align}
$$
where $\mathbf{E}(\mathbf{B})$ is the electric(magnetic) field in the K-frame, $\boldsymbol{\beta} = \mathbf{v}/c$, $c$ is the speed of light, and $\gamma$ is the relativistic Lorentz factor.
1) what is the actual value...?
The $k$ factor in that article is $\left( 4 \pi \varepsilon_{o} \right)^{-1} = 8.987552 \times 10^{9} \ m/F$, where $\varepsilon_{o}$ is the permittivity of free space. The $q^{2}$ value is just the elementary charge squared = $2.56697 \times 10^{-38} \ C^{2}$. Therefore, $k \ q^{2} = 2.307078 \times 10^{-28} \ V \ m \ C$ and now if you divide by $1 \ cm = 10^{-2} \ m^{-1}$ squared, then $F_{E} = 2.307078 \times 10^{-24} \ N$.
The factors in $F_{B}$, $\mu_{o} \ q/4 \pi$, has a magnitude of $1.602218 \times 10^{-26} \ N \ s^{2} \ C^{-1}$, where $\mu_{o}$ is the permeability of free space.
Intuitively it shouldn't be smaller, yet it can't possibly get greater than 1, can it?
The magnitude of $F_{B} = 4.7552 \times 10^{-14} \ N$, which is roughly $10^{10}$ times larger than the magnitude of $F_{E}$.
I am not sure why you think that the magnetic force could not exceed the electric force, but it depends upon the situation.
2) what happens to the trajectories of the particles due to the influence of the mutual magnetic field (Lorenz force), do they converge?
That depends upon the situation. In your specific example, you should realize that the solar wind is always permeated by a background magnetic field and that the particles generally follow the magnetic field.
3) their paths should also diverge since the repulsion (Coulomb force) is slightly stronger than the attraction (Biot-Savart)? What is the result of the interaction of all these forces, what happens to the particles? I tried to make a graph. Is it correct? what are the final values?
So charged particles are almost never isolated. In the solar wind (and nearly all plasmas in the universe), the particles' electrostatic fields are screened by oppositely charged particles over an average distance called the Debye length. Therefore, unfortunately, these two particles may not really act as two independent particles. In fact, they will most likely act as part of velocity distributions and exhibit a collective behavior more like a fluid than just two individual particles.
4) why does the magnetic field produce an attraction?
It's similar to the problem of two parallel current-carrying wires. The $\mathbf{j} \times \mathbf{B}$-force (related to the Hall effect) of the current from wire 1 under the influence of the magnetic field from wire 2 will produce a force on wire 1 directed toward wire 2. The same is true for wire 2 due to the influence of wire. Thus, the two wires could be said to attract each other.
5) lastly, but most important, I read that the magnetic force is interpreted through relativity as the electric field in a different frame, is that right? But here the two electrons are in the same frame, and in that frame they are not moving (apart from a slight divergence) and they should not feel any magnetic force.
See the Equations 1a and 1b above...
6) how can a repulsive force transform into an attractive one in a different frame?
A force is not a Lorentz invariant. Meaning, the direction and magnitude of a force can change in a different reference frame. Forces conform to what are called Lorentz transformations. So forces can qppear different in different reference frames.
can an observer C moving with the CM deduce that they all (A,B,C) are moving even if the are not aware, and even find out the actual speed they are moving at, just observing that the value of the repulsion is different from the one predicted by Coulomb?
No, motion is not something you can deduce. Think about riding in a car, train, or air plane at constant speed. Without looking out a window you could not determine that you were moving. You can measure electric and magnetic fields in the frame of reference of the detector. Without a measurement in a different reference frame, you can only discuss the measurement in the measurement frame. You can apply a Lorentz transformation to those measurements to infer what you should observe in any given frame, but you cannot determine that you are moving based upon electric and magnetic field measurements alone.
Example Reversal
For simplicity, let us use the non-relativistic limit (i.e., $\gamma \rightarrow 1$) and assume:
$$
\begin{align}
\mathbf{v} & = \left( 0, v_{y}, 0 \right) \\
\mathbf{u} & = \left( u_{x}, 0, 0 \right) \\
\mathbf{E} & = \left( E_{x}, 0, 0 \right) \\
\mathbf{B} & = \left( 0, 0, B_{z} \right)
\end{align}
$$
where $\boldsymbol{\beta} = \mathbf{v}/c$, $\mathbf{u}$ is the instantaneous particle velocity in the K-frame, and we assume $u_{x} > 0$ and $B_{z} > 0$. Then we can show that the Lorentz force in the K-frame is given by:
$$
\begin{align}
\mathbf{F} & = q \ \left( \mathbf{E} + \frac{\mathbf{u}}{c} \times \mathbf{B} \right) \tag{2a} \\
& = q \ \left( E_{x}, - \frac{u_{x} \ B_{z}}{c}, 0 \right) \tag{2b}
\end{align}
$$
Performing Lorentz transformations and velocity additions, we can show that the relevant 3-vectors in the K'-frame are:
$$
\begin{align}
\mathbf{u}' & = \left( u_{x}, -v_{y}, 0 \right) \\
\mathbf{E}' & = \left( E_{x} + \frac{v_{y} \ B_{z}}{c}, 0, 0 \right) \\
\mathbf{B}' & = \left( 0, 0, B_{z} + \frac{v_{y} \ E_{x}}{c} \right) \\
\mathbf{F}' & = q \ \left( \mathbf{E}' + \frac{\mathbf{u}'}{c} \times \mathbf{B}' \right) \tag{3a} \\
& = q \ \left( E_{x} \ \left[ 1 - \frac{v_{y}^{2}}{c^{2}} \right], - \frac{u_{x}}{c} \ \left[ B_{z} + \frac{v_{y} \ E_{x}}{c} \right], 0 \right) \tag{3b}
\end{align}
$$
Then to reverse the sign of the $\hat{\mathbf{y}}$-component of Equation 2b, the $\hat{\mathbf{y}}$-component of Equation 3b must satisfy:
$$
\begin{align}
E_{x} & < 0 \ \text{ & } \ v_{y} > - \frac{c \ B_{z}}{E_{x}} \\
& \text{OR} \\
E_{x} & > 0 \ \text{ & } \ v_{y} < - \frac{c \ B_{z}}{E_{x}}
\end{align}
$$
So in principle, it is possible for the sign of a component of the 3-vector force to reverse.