There's a particle moving at a certain speed $v$ with respect to a reference frame $A$ through an axis I will call $x$. We thus know that for the frame of reference located at the particle itself, the relative velocity $u'$ of the particle is always $0$, no matter what $v$ is. All of this is trivial. $v$ can approach the speed of light $c$, but $u'$ will remain being $0$, it will approach $0$ as well.
Next, picture that there is another particle that has a parallel trajectory to the first one and the exact same velocity at all times. In this case, would $u'_2$ (the speed of the second particle with respect to the first one) be also $0$?
Now imagine that there is another particle that has a parallel trajectory to the first one, and at a certain time $t'=t''=0$ both particles have the same speed $v_0$ with respect to $A$ and are exactly at the same $x$ coordinate. The acceleration $a$ of both particles is exactly the same for every time $t'$ and $t''$ (of the first and second particle respectively), but it turns out that from $t'=t''=0$ up to a certain time $t'=\Delta t'$ the acceleration of the second particle is higher, and so for the rest of the trajectory there will be a displacement in the velocities, namely that $$v'-v=\Delta v=\Delta a\space \Delta t'$$ All of this with respect to $A$ (I suspect that the formula above might not be correct, in that case please do correct it). The relative velocity of the second particle with respect to the first one will then be $$u_2'=\frac{v'-v}{1-\frac{v'v}{c^2}}=c\frac{v'-v}{c-\frac{v'v}{c}}=c\frac{\Delta v}{c-\frac{v'^2}{c}+\frac{\Delta v \space v'}{c}}$$ So when $v'\to c$, $u'_2\to c$. $\Delta v$ can be as little as you want, as long as you make $\Delta t'$ small. It will, though, stay constant for the rest of the trajectory. What if $v'$ actually reaches $c$ and right after that, particle one keeps accelerating, so a time $\Delta t'$ after particle two reached speed $c$, particle one reaches the same speed. Now $u_2'$ is mathematically undetermined, but the limit will actually still be $c$ if we leave $v'=c$ constant. This confuses me a great deal mainly because the only difference now with the other hypothetical case of two particles always going at the same speed and accelerating together is a small displacement with respect to $A$ but an infinite displacement with respect to the reference frame of either particle (according to the Lorentz transforms). But in this other case, $u'_2$ will also always be $0$, right? The only difference between this case and the case of the velocity of the particle with respect to its own reference frame is a displacement in the axis perpendicular to $x$, which shouldn't change the first trivial result (or does it?). Does the "trivial" result even stand?
Please tell me where I'm wrong. Thank you.