If $F=0$, $F=ma \implies m\frac{(v-u)}{t}=0\implies v-u=0 \implies v=u $
Which is essentially Newton's first law.
If $F=0$, $F=ma \implies m\frac{(v-u)}{t}=0\implies v-u=0 \implies v=u $
Which is essentially Newton's first law.
ACuriousMind's link gives you the correct answers.
But here is an additional side-note to be considered:
$$a= \frac{v-u}{t}\;;$$
Hmm; this is not true in general.
What you would want to say is that
$$F~=~ m\frac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dt} = ma~=~0$$
However, that doesn't mean that the body has constant velocity; for in some cases
$$\dot a ~\ne~ 0\;.$$