I have been studying the basics of general relativity with Hartle's Gravity. He presents the geodesic equation as
$$ \frac{d^2x^{{\mu}}}{ds^2}=-{\Gamma}^{{\mu}}_{{\alpha}{\beta}}\frac{dx^{{\alpha}}}{ds}\frac{dx^{{\beta}}}{ds} $$
However, in reading Padmanabhan's Gravitation, he says that the equation
$$ 0=k^{{\alpha}}{\nabla}_{{\alpha}}k_{{\beta}} $$
is the geodesic equation for a wave vector $k$ defined as $k_{{\alpha}}={\nabla}_{{\alpha}}{\psi}$, where ${\psi}$ is just a scalar function.
How do these two definitions of the geodesic equation represent the same thing? They do not look at all alike. In fact, if I try to work it out, I get
$$ 0=k^{{\alpha}}\,\bigg(\frac{{\partial}k_{{\beta}}}{{\partial}x^{{\alpha}}}-{\Gamma}^{{\delta}}_{{\beta}{\gamma}}k_{{\delta}}\bigg) $$
$$ 0=k^{{\alpha}}\,\frac{{\partial}k_{{\beta}}}{{\partial}x^{{\alpha}}}-{\Gamma}^{{\delta}}_{{\beta}{\gamma}}k_{{\delta}}k^{{\alpha}} $$
For one thing, the $x^{{\alpha}}$ is not supposed to be on the bottom of the derivative! If $k_{{\alpha}}$ is supposed to satisfy the geodesic equation, I expected this to look like the first equation I wrote.