Most derivations of the LSZ reduction formula, e.g. Srednicki (equations 5.13, 5.14, 5.15), Schwartz (equations 6.17, 6.18, 6.19), Wikipedia use a property of the time-ordering symbol that looks like the distributive property.
The relevant steps are (I'm using a single in and out particle to simplify the expressions): $$ \begin{align} \langle 0|a_{2}(+\infty)a_1^\dagger(-\infty)|0\rangle &= \langle 0|{\rm T} a_{2}(+\infty)a_1^\dagger(-\infty)|0\rangle\\ &= \langle 0|{\rm T} \left(a_{2} (-\infty)+\int dt_{2} \partial_0 a_{2}(t_{2})\right) \left(a_{1}^\dagger (+\infty)+\int dt_{1} \partial_0 a_{1}^\dagger(t_{1})\right)|0\rangle \\ &= \langle 0|{\rm T} \left(\int dt_{2} \partial_0 a_{2}(t_{2})\right) \left(\int dt_{1} \partial_0 a_{1}^\dagger(t_{1})\right)|0\rangle \\ &= \int dt_{1}dt_{2} \langle 0| {\rm T}a_{2}(t_{2})a_{1}^\dagger(t_{1})|0\rangle \\ \end{align} $$ Here the distributive property is used twice: first to make the ladder operators annihilate the vacuum states (line 3) and then to exchange the time ordering symbol with the integral operator (line 4).
The final expression is they way I expect it: it is only natural that operators should be applied in the order given by their time argument. However this property is far from trivial, since it works even when an operator is decomposed into a sum of operators at different times.
So my questions are: what are the conditions (e.g. which operators, how should they be decomposed..) for this property to hold? And, most important, is there a proof of it?
Edit: To clarify what I mean by "distributive property": $$ \begin{align} \langle 0|{\rm T} \left(a_{2} (-\infty)+\int dt_{2} \partial_0 a_{2}(t_{2})\right) &\left(a_{1}^\dagger (+\infty)+\int dt_{1} \partial_0 a_{1}^\dagger(t_{1})\right)|0\rangle =\\ &\langle 0|{\rm T} a_{2} (-\infty) a_{1}^\dagger (+\infty)|0\rangle \\ +&\langle 0|{\rm T} a_{2} (-\infty)\left(\int dt_{1} \partial_0 a_{1}^\dagger(t_{1})\right)|0\rangle\\ +&\langle 0|{\rm T} \left(\int dt_{2} \partial_0 a_{2}(t_{2})\right) a_{1}^\dagger (+\infty)|0\rangle\\ +&\langle 0|{\rm T} \left(\int dt_{2} \partial_0 a_{2}(t_{2})\right) \left(\int dt_{1} \partial_0 a_{1}^\dagger(t_{1})\right)|0\rangle \end{align} $$