0

If I understand it a bit the standard answer for this is: the pushing/holding apart of fermions and the pulling/holding together of bosons is just a result of symmetrization requirement (Griffths' term). But if it does force particles to move or be in a certain place, how come it is not a force? Is this just a way to say it is not the result of any of the four fundamental interactions?

Patrick
  • 1,835
  • The latter is definitely not right. The "Not a result of any of the four fundamental interactions" bit. The bosons are the embodiment of those, are they not? – Matt Jul 19 '16 at 11:16

1 Answers1

2

It just means that the exchange force is not a classical force like between spinless classical particles. It is a purely quantum effect. It disappears when conditions become more and more classical.

Vladimir Kalitvianski
  • 13,885
  • So would a classical centrifugal force be a good analogy? It is not a force itself, but rather a result of inertia (I understood it is not classical. Just trying to draw an analogy not to be lost). – Patrick Jul 19 '16 at 13:41
  • 1
    No, it is not a good analogy. Because centrifugal force is measurable and classical. Some sort of exchange force can be mimicked with Dirac's "exchange interaction" terms including spins. – Vladimir Kalitvianski Jul 19 '16 at 13:51