I am reading Goldstein's Classical Mechanics book, and I came across that:
In a rigid body the internal forces do no work
Is this statement based on the assumption that the internal forces are central? Or, is it true even when the internal forces not central?
Goldstein defines a rigid body as a system of particles in which the distance between the particles remain constant, and does not require that the internal forces to be central.
[https://pdfs.semanticscholar.org/902c/12761555df7512a024df448bc9100a581da3.pdf][1]
he gives a derivation which he describes as follows:
"The derivation in this appendix is (we feel) much shorter and considerably more elegant than the one found in traditional sources such as Goldstein."
I am finding these notes by Baraff very useful.
– Simon Feb 23 '19 at 14:45