The QCD lagrangian with two massless flavours of quarks takes the form $$\mathcal L = \sum_{i=u,d} i \bar q_i \gamma_{\mu} D^{\mu} q_i.$$ Defining operators to project out the left and right handed components of the quark fields and rewriting the lagrangian in terms of these components we see that there is no coupling between them. Because of the anomalous $U(1)_A$, the symmetry of massless QCD is then said to be $SU(2)_L \otimes SU(2)_R$.
In Matthew Schwartz's book, P.619 he writes that 'Strong dynamics of QCD induces condensates $\langle \bar \psi_u \psi_u \rangle \approx \langle \bar \psi_d \psi_d \rangle \neq 0$ which spontaneosly break $SU(2)_L \otimes SU(2)_R$ down to $SU(2)_{\text{isospin}}$. Thus, in the low energy theory, particles only form multiplets of $SU(2)_{\text{isospin}}$.'
I am trying to understand what is the relevance of the non vanishing VEV of the quark operators $\bar q q$ to imply SSB of the chiral symmetry group? In the chiral lagrangian above, there is no operator of the form $\bar q q$ since the mass term has been set to zero.
My understanding is that SSB of a symmetry means that the lagrangian of the theory exhibits the symmetry but the ground state of the theory does not. In this case our theory is chiral QCD described by the lagrangian at the top of this post . Are we then adding the term $\bar q q m$ onto the chiral lagrangian which can be seen as the analogous term of the Higgs potential like in SSB of free scalar field theories? The VEV of all terms are then taken and $\langle \bar q q \rangle$ is seen to be non vanishing? The ground state VEV is thus non zero and writing the $\bar q q$ in terms of left and right handed components we see that this term couples them thus the symmetry is no longer the direct product of two $SU(2)$'s.
Is that way of thinking about it anywhere near correct? The more I think about it the more it seems to me that it describes more of an explicit breaking (chiral symmetry softly broken by masses) than spontaneous breaking.
Thanks!