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I think since $F=ma$ thus the frictional force can produce acceleration in a body in some cases, is my view correct?please suggest some example then. If not then where i went wrong?

Qmechanic
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1 Answers1

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The F in F=ma isn't required to be a frictional force, it's just any force.

If we assume a frictional force, then in physics-language yes, it does cause an acceleration, but in the opposite direction to motion. An object travelling from left to right and slowing down is accelerating, but to the left...for example, if the force slowing it down was a rocket then it would slow, stop, then (in everyday-language) accelerate to the left. In physics language it's always accelerating to the left, even when slowing down or stationary.

Frictional forces generally depend on the relative motions of the two objects involved though, so in your specific case when the relative speeds drop to zero the frictional force drops to zero and the acceleration stops, rather than continuing in style of the rocket example.

The Geoff
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  • "when the relative speeds drop to zero the frictional force drops to zero" what about static friction? – pentane Sep 09 '16 at 21:12
  • Static friction would be applicable if you were still applying a force to the object, but we're not in this context. – The Geoff Sep 26 '16 at 15:49