If a charged particle is projected under the influence of magnetic field, magnetic force acts perpendicularly with both the direction of magnetic field and velocity of particle. The direction can be calculated by vector product rule. But, my question is that why does the force act normally to both the direction? In other words, what is the physical explanation of the statement "magnetic force is vector product of velocity of charged body and magnetic field"?
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"Why" questions are hard to answer and often out of the scope of this site. Why? Because it has been measured experimentally to do so. Why? Because we have decided to call the field that does that the "magnetic field". Why? Because electromagnetism needs to be Lorentz-invariant. Why? Because a god decided it makes the universe behave in a way they like. – JiK Sep 13 '16 at 12:45
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4Possible duplicate of Is there an intuitive explanation for why Lorentz force is perpendicular to a particle's velocity and the magnetic field? – ProfRob Sep 13 '16 at 13:14
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Perhaps this is a helpful answer http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/197451/ – HolgerFiedler Sep 13 '16 at 13:45