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One of the interesting features of the Aharonov-Bohm effect is that it shows some form of non-locality: the wave function of a particle is influenced by a magnetic (or electric) field even though the particle is never located where the field is non-zero.

To derive the effect, one considers a semi-classical system: the particle's degrees of freedom are fully quantum, but the magnetic field is just a non-dynamic background.

So it seems to me that the non-locality cannot be considered fundamental in any sense, since a full quantum description would include the quantized electromagnetic field, and then we would see that all interactions are carried by force-carriers (photons).

Am I right?

Lior
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    Possible duplicates: http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/56926/2451 , http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/86506/2451 , http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/99505/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Oct 18 '16 at 16:58
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    We have little idea what "full quantum description" would include. "Quantized electromagnetic field" and "force-carrier" particles are elements of the current perturbative QFT, it is questionable if they will survive even in non-perturbative QFT, let alone in a comprehensive theory that is expected to replace it http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/221513/do-we-really-need-virtual-particles-to-exist/221524#221524 In some proposals spacetime is emergent and locality at the fundamental level is altogether moot. – Conifold Oct 18 '16 at 22:20
  • I see this topic was thoroughly discussed already. So the question may be closed/deleted. – Lior Oct 19 '16 at 04:35

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