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If there is sphere rolling on the horizontal surface without slipping. Then we know the instantaneous axis of rotation is the point which is in contact with surface. Now my doubt is, why the angular velocity taken from centre of sphere and IAOR is same ?

Please someone help me.

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Put yourself at rest with the centre of the sphere of radius $R$. The value of the velocity of the contact point of the sphere and the ground is $$v= R \omega\tag{1}$$ for some $\omega$. If next you put yourself at rest with the instantaneous contact point, the value of the velocity of the centre of the sphere must be $-v$ (since the contact point is at rest with you now). However you know that, instantaneously, the motion of the sphere is a rotation around the instantaneous contact point so that it must be $$-v = R \omega'\tag{2}$$ for some $\omega'$. Comparing (1) and (2), you see that $$\omega'= -\omega\:.$$

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It is a law of rigid body motion that the angular velocity vector is shared with an entire body in motion. This is a consequence of that fact that all distances between particles in the body remain constant.

In fact, it is the definition of rotational velocity

For a rigid body in motion, at any instant, there is always a unique vector $\vec{\omega}$ such that the linear velocity vector of any point located a distance $\vec{r}$ from the axis of rotation is found by $$\vec{v} = \vec{\omega} \times \vec{r}$$

The reverse is found similarly, whereas if a point has linear velocity vector $\vec{v}$ and a body is rotating by $\vec{\omega}$ the rotation axis is located at $$ \vec{r}_{\rm IAOR} = -\vec{r}= \frac{\vec{\omega} \times \vec{v} }{ \| \vec{\omega} \|^2 } $$

You can prove the above using the vector triple product identities

$$ \require{cancel} \vec{\omega} \times \vec{v} = \vec{\omega} \times ( \vec{\omega} \times \vec{r} ) = \vec{\omega} ( \cancel{\vec{\omega} \cdot \vec{r}} ) - \vec{r} ( \vec{\omega} \cdot \vec{\omega} ) =- \vec{r} \| \vec{\omega} \|^2 $$

John Alexiou
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  • But how can we say the angular velocity on any other point on sphere (not the centre) from IAOR is same in magnitude. – user123733 Nov 07 '16 at 19:15
  • angular velocity can't be defined for a point. It is a property of the entire rigid body. A point cannot rotate. – John Alexiou Nov 07 '16 at 20:00
  • See http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/146697/392 – John Alexiou Nov 07 '16 at 20:02
  • @JohnAlexiou how did you justify $\vec{\omega} \cdot \vec{r} = 0 $? – tryst with freedom Feb 23 '21 at 12:00
  • The calculation of $\vec{r}{\rm IAOR}$ yields the point closest (and thus perpendicular) to the rotation axis. The axis (or line in space) is infinite and you just need _any point along its locus to fully describe it. The point on the rotation axis closest to where $\vec{v}$ is considered is sufficient in this case. Remember that $\vec{r}$ is always used in context of $\vec{\omega}\times\vec{r}$ in kinematics which indicate that parallel components of $\vec{r}$ are to be discarded. – John Alexiou Feb 23 '21 at 13:38
  • @John_Alexiou Sir may u give a explanation as to why points cant rotate ? This is what i encountered during angular momentum about COM frame (which is a point ) they just have translation – Orion_Pax Dec 18 '21 at 12:23
  • @Orion_Pax - a point does not have any spatial dimensions and rotations are defined for things that occupy space since it is a relationship between the motion of two separate locations in space that belong to the same body. – John Alexiou Dec 18 '21 at 15:14
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If you imagine two points in space rotating around each other with no other points of reference, both will calculate the same value for orbital/angular momentum from their own perspective for the other point.

I believe what you're asking is similar. The IAOR is continuously changing such that it's relation to the center of the body is analogous to the relationship a fixed point of a rigid body has with the body's center (in terms of radians). The only difference is the signs would be flipped.

It's just a matter of which point you're using as a reference, both give you the same magnitude quantity just as both points in space see the other rotating around itself at the same rate.

Yogi DMT
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  • But how can we say the angular velocity on any other point on sphere (not the centre) from IAOR is same in magnitude. – user123733 Nov 07 '16 at 18:56
  • Again it's in radians, and we're only looking at the instantaneous momentum of a fixed point and instantaneous AOR. In instant of time, any point on the axis between the IAOR and the center will have momentum consistent with angular momentum, but you can't do your calculations with different axis (moments in time in this case) without accounting for the discrepancy, just as you can't arbitrarily change the fixed point you are using to calculate angular momentum. – Yogi DMT Nov 07 '16 at 19:07