In this Wikipedia page there's a statement about 1S orbital as solved from Dirac equation:
Note that $\gamma$ is a little less than $1$, so the top function is similar to an exponentially decreasing function of $r$ except that at very small $r$ it theoretically goes to infinity (but this behavior appears at a value of $r$ smaller than the radius of a proton!).
For comparison, when solving radial part of Schrödinger's equation for hydrogen, we explicitly strive to avoid solution which is singular at the singular point of potential.
In Dirac equation it seems that the only justification of allowing unbounded solution is a physical one, not mathematical. It looks very inconsistent with what I've seen when solving various problems with Schrödinger's equation.
So why is Dirac equation's solution allowed to be unbounded? What are the boundary and smoothness conditions on the wavefunction?
I suspect that Dirac equation simply doesn't admit S states with bounded wavefunction in Coulomb potential. Can it then be shown that if we start from a spherically-symmetric wave packet with a zero in its center, then its evolution in Coulomb field will inevitably lead to formation of similar $r^{\gamma-1}$ singularity?