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I was reading "Introduction to statistical physics" by Kerson Huang. I came across this line.

The existence of absolute zero does not mean that the temperature scale terminates at the low end,for the scale is an open set without boundaries. It is a matter of convention that we call $T$ the temperature.We could have used $1/T$ as the temperature and absolute zero would be infinity.

I am not able to understand this line. please help.

Qmechanic
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Bluey
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  • More on the naturalness of $1/T$: http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/21851/2451 – Qmechanic Nov 14 '16 at 22:01
  • Seems like a big/vague question. It might help if you could explain exactly what you do not understand. – pentane Nov 14 '16 at 22:28
  • Maybe, just maybe, this video might be related https://youtu.be/yTeBUpR17Rw skip ahead for the first minute. Apologies if is not helpful to you. Also the link the QMechanic link, have you read it, what part do you not follow? Thanks –  Nov 14 '16 at 23:38
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    Thanks @CountTo10 concept is now clear to me .Thanks again . – Bluey Nov 15 '16 at 02:22

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