I'm wondering if somebody could help me to finish a simple calculation. Let me first provide motivation for the question below: I would like to write a QM amplitude in the 'QFT-style', as $$\langle \phi_2 (t_2) \phi_1(t_1) \rangle = \langle 0 | \hat{\phi}_2(0) \operatorname{e}^{-i H (t_2 - t_1)} \hat{\phi}_1 | 0 \rangle $$ Here I assumed that $\hat{\phi}_{1,2}$ are Hermitean, which in general does not necessary have to be true.
OK, now the question: I would like to know which operator creates the position eigenstates in QM. Here's my attempt to find its matrix elements in the position representation: \begin{gather} \hat{\mathcal{O}} |0\rangle = |x\rangle \qquad \text{(by definition)}\\ \langle x'| \hat{\mathcal{O}} |0\rangle = \langle x'|x\rangle = \delta(x-x')\\ \int \operatorname{d}x''\langle x'| \hat{\mathcal{O}} |x''\rangle \langle x''|0\rangle =\delta(x-x')\\ \end{gather}
Here comes the dependency on Hamiltonian - we can proceed no further without specifying the particular form of $H$, and so of $\langle x'' | 0 \rangle$. Of course, for simplicity we begin with the harmonic oscillator.
$$\langle x | 0 \rangle = \pi^{-1/4} \operatorname{e}^{-x^2/2}$$
Where I chose $\dfrac{m \omega}{\hbar} = 1$ for convenience. Hence, one gets: $$\pi^{-1/4}\int \operatorname{d}x''\langle x'| \hat{\mathcal{O}} |x''\rangle \operatorname{e}^{-(x'')^2/2} =\delta(x-x')\\ $$
Can anyone help me to find $\langle x'| \hat{\mathcal{O}} |x''\rangle $? For sure, I don't expect $\hat{\mathcal{O}}$ to be a 'nice' operator, since it does not define a properly normalised state. I expect it to be some kind of distribution, whose kernel I would like to know.
UPDATE 1
Few clarifications about the statement of the question:
- The question is about a $1$-d QM problem, with a single degree of freedom. In principle, it is NOT related to QFT.
- Starting from the line where I chose the particular form of Hamiltonian (QHO) and of the ground state, the definition of vacuum is $\hat{a} |0\rangle = 0$, where $\hat{a}$ is the usual QHO annihilation operator.
UPDATE 2
@AccidentalFourierTransform has suggested the following: $$\langle x' |\hat{\mathcal{O}} | x''\rangle= \pi^{1/4} \operatorname{e}^{+(x'')^2/2} \operatorname{e}^{i x'' (x-x')} / (2\pi) $$
Being substituted into the previous line, this clearly leads to the correct result. Now my question is whether such definition can indeed define a (nice at least in certain sense) operator. What confuses me is the factor $\operatorname{e}^{+(x'')^2/2}$ together with the fact that we are integrating over $x''$.