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[Edit: moved to front] For which $(H,b)$ pairs, where $H$ is a Hamiltonian and $b$ is a basis, can we write:

$$\langle b_f\vert e^{-iHt/\hbar}\vert b_i\rangle=\int_{b(0)=b_i}^{b(t)=b_f} \mathcal{D}b(t)\, e^{iS[b(t)]},\tag{2}$$

where $S$ is real?


Background

The derivation of the path integral notion I am familiar with proceeds as follows. We would like to evaluate the propagator:

$$G(m,n,t)=\langle n\vert U(t)\vert m\rangle. $$

For some large number $N$, we break up the time evolution from $0$ to $t$ into $N$ pieces. For notational clarity, define:

$$W:=U\left(\frac{t}{N}\right),$$

so that:

$$G(m,n,t)= \langle n\vert W^N\vert m\rangle.$$

Now, denoting the matrix elements of $W$ by $W_{ij}$, we may write:

$$G(m,n,t)=\sum_{j,k,\ell,\dots}\underbrace{W_{nj}W_{jk}W_{k\ell}\cdots W_{\ell m}}_{\text{N times}}.$$

Thus we have written $G$ by summing over "histories" $\{j,k,\ell,\cdots\}$, with a product of $W$'s matrix elements being assigned to each history. [edited to add following Qmechanic's answer:] Assuming the $W_{ij}$'s are all nonzero, we may define $s_{ij}=-i\log W_{ij}$, and write:

$$G(m,n,t)=\sum_{i(t)\in\{\text{hists}\}}\exp\left(i\sum_{t}s_{i(t+1),i(t)}\right),$$

where now $s_{ij}$ has the interpretation of the increment of action. Note that nothing in our analysis so far has implied that $s$ is real.

For the particular case of working in the position basis with a Hamiltonian of the form $$H=p^2/(2m)+V(q),$$ a gaussian integral may be used to show that (as $N\to \infty$):

$$W_{ij}=\mathcal{N}e^{iF_{ij}},\tag{1}$$

with $F_{ij}$ real, which means that if we absorb the normalization into the definition of the path integral, the $s$'s are real.

This is kind of bizarre. To emphasize, what we have found is not that $W$ is unitary or any nice condition like that. We have found that all of the entries $W_{ij}$ have the same absolute value. I would not expect this property to be preserved under a unitary change of basis.

It is unobvious to me how general this result is (my suspicion is that it will definitely not hold for "most" Hamiltonians/bases). For which Hamiltonians/choice of bases are these matrix elements pure phases, and is there a simple or physical way to see that this must be so?


Counterexamples

I do not believe that (1) and (2) need to be satisfied in any basis for any choice of $H$. I will try to argue this by presenting 3 examples, in decreasing order of my confidence in them.

First consider $H=0$. In this case, $W_{x,x'}$ is nonzero when $x=x'$, and zero when $x\not =x'$. This shows that (1) cannot be satisfied, and indeed the $s$'s may not even be defined. I thus believe no $S$ exists to make (2) true.

We can also write down something pathological like:

$$H=\lambda\vert x=1\rangle\langle x=0\vert +\text{h.c.},$$

which, to my inexperienced eye, looks like $W_{0,0}$, $W_{0,1}$, and $W_{2,3}$ will all have different magnitudes. Again (1) cannot be satisfied.

Alternatively, we may consider a normal-looking Hamiltonian:

$$H=\frac{p^2}{2m}+E_0\log\left(1+\frac{x^2}{x_0^2}\right),$$

but consider the matrix elements of $W$ in the momentum basis. Doing the same Trotter formula trick and evaluating the integral over $x$ this time gives a result which I believe is not of the form $$W_{p,p'}=\mathcal{N}e^{iF(p,p')}$$ with $F$ real. I believe this because plugging in different values of $p$ and $p'$ numerically changes $\vert W_{p,p'}\vert ^2$.

Generically, for a separable local Hamiltonian $H(q,p)=K(p)+V(q)$, a phase-space path integral may be defined, and the position space path integral may be recovered by integrating out $p(t)$. I expect that only in the case of $K$ quadratic do we recover a position space path integral whose argument is of the form $e^{iS}$ for $S\in\mathbb{R}$, and generically the result would have a varying absolute value. I believe this provides some evidence that "representable as a real-action path integral wrt a particular basis" is a fairly strong constraint on Hamiltonians.

Mathematica showing computation of $V_{p,p'}$

  • Did you see this paper?

    http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/000349169290288W

    "The functional integral constructed directly from the hamiltonian" by Farhi and Gutmann

    – Aram Harrow Feb 01 '17 at 19:57

2 Answers2

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That the Boltzmann factor $\exp\left(\frac{i}{\hbar}S\right)$ is a pure phase follows essentially from the fact that the time-evolution operator $U=\exp\left(-\frac{i}{\hbar}H\right)$ is unitary via the general derivation of the path integral formalism from the operator formalism. See also this related Phys.SE post.

Comments to update:

  1. There seems to be no reason why OP's eq. (1) should hold.

  2. For OP's potential $V=E_0{\rm Ln}\left(1+\left(\frac{x}{x_0}\right)^2\right)$, the Mathematica calculation seems to be calculating the momentum Fourier transform of $\exp\left(\frac{i}{\hbar}V\right)$. There seems to be no reason why that should be a pure phase.

Qmechanic
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    Thank you for your answer @Qmechanic! I have updated my question to clarify the exact point I do not understand; I hope this is alright. – commutatertot Dec 18 '16 at 05:21
  • I updated the answer. – Qmechanic Dec 18 '16 at 19:10
  • Just to make sure I understand your answer @Qmechanic, would you agree with the following: For $H=p^2/(2m)+V(q)$, my (1) is satisfied; for $H=0$ it is not, (1) being satisfied has nothing to do with the amplitudes associated to each history all having the same magnitude. If so, is it possible to exhibit a Lagrangian in the path integral formalism which exactly reproduces an identity matrix propagator? Thank you for your time. – commutatertot Dec 18 '16 at 23:13
  • To put it another way @Qmechanic (to compare with your answer in the linked question): If I assume $W_{ij}$ is nonzero for all $i$ and $j$ (which I don't think is true in general), I can write the path integral expression for the propagator $\sum_{i(t)\in\text{hist}} \prod_{t\in\text{time}} W_{i(t+1),i(t)}$ as $\sum_{i(t)\in\text{hist}} \exp\left(i\sum_{t\in\text{time}} s_{i(t+1),i(t)}\right)$, where $s_{ij}:=-i\log W_{ij}$ is the "action". What is unobvious to me is the conditions under which the $s$'s are real (up to normalization). I am not convinced yet that this follows from unitarity. – commutatertot Dec 19 '16 at 17:18
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Above equation (6.9), Srednicki's QFT book says

If $H(p,q)$ is no more than quadratic in the momenta ... then the integral over $p$ is gaussian, and can be done in closed form. If the term that is quadratic in $p$ is independent of q ... then the prefactors generated by the gaussian integrals are all constants, and can be absorbed into the definition of $\mathcal{D}q$. The result of integrating out $p$ is then

$$ \langle q'',t''| q', t' \rangle = \int \mathcal{D}q \exp \left[ i \int_{t'}^{t''} dt\, \mathcal{L}(\dot{q}(t), q(t)) \right],$$

where $\mathcal{L}$ is calculated from $H$ via the usual classical procedure. So basically, the Hamiltonian has to take the form $H = p^2/(2m) + p\, A(x) + V(x)$. (The second term can come up as a cross-term between the canonical momentum and a vector potential in gauge QFT.)

The key point in understanding where those phases in the matrix elements come from is this: if $x$ and $p$ are canonically congugate variables (which they are), then the Stone–von Neumann theorem roughly says that they can be represented as Fourier transforms of each other, so that $\langle x | p \rangle \propto e^{i p x/\hbar}$. That's why all the matrix elements have the same magnitude: in any momentum eigenstate of $p$, the probability $P(x) = |\psi(x)|^2 = | \langle x | p \rangle|^2$ of finding a particle at any position should be the same, and vice versa for position eigenstates.

tparker
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  • Thank you for your answer @tparker! So just to make sure I have understood, statements like "each history gets an amplitude of $e^{iS}$" are really only "true"/meaningful when your system's lagrangian/hamiltonian have a quadratic kinetic energy and a potential (perhaps with a vector-potential-style cross-term)? This matches up with my thoughts from the "counterexamples" section, but surprises me because in the past I had naively thought an $e^{iS}$ path integral description was available for every Hamiltonian. – commutatertot Dec 26 '16 at 00:54
  • @commutatertot Yes, that's correct. But pretty much all the Hamiltonians that ever come up in practice (e.g. the Hamiltonian of the complete Standard Model) have that form, so this requirement is rarely an issue. Sometimes in condensed matter settings, you get high-order gradient expansions which appear to give kinetic-type terms that are higher than quadratic in $p$, but you can show by power-counting/dimensional analysis that these terms are always irrelevant under renormalization group flow, so they do not contribute to the low-energy physics and can usually be neglected. – tparker Dec 26 '16 at 01:36
  • @commutatertot PS Hamiltonians for which this fails to hold, like your counterexample, generally fail to have any notion of spatial locality, so we wouldn't expect them to be representable by a local QFT anyway. – tparker Dec 26 '16 at 01:45