Let $\theta$ and $\eta$ denote odd complex supernumbers (also known as Grassmann numbers), $a$ and $b$ arbitrary complex supernumbers. Say that $a$ is $\circ$-real (resp. $\circ$-imaginary) if $a^\circ = a$ (resp. $a^\circ = -a$).
There are two candidates for the role of $(-)^\circ$, i.e. two ways to define conjugation of supernumbers: with $(\theta\eta)^* = \theta^*\eta^*$ and with $(\theta\eta)^\dagger = \eta^\dagger\theta^\dagger$. (Notation from Cartier and DeWitt-Morette, who define both, see Eq. (9.13).) Note that:
- the product $\theta\eta$ is $*$-real when $\theta$ and $\eta$ are $*$-real, while $\theta^*\theta$ is $*$-imaginary;
- the product $\theta\eta$ is $\dagger$-imaginary when $\theta$ and $\eta$ are $\dagger$-real, while $\theta^\dagger\theta$ is $\dagger$-real.
Physicists usually use $(-)^\dagger$, motivating this by the correspondence with Hermitian conjugation of operators through quantization. Two places that use $(-)^*$ are the draft chapter 9PDF of Cartier and DeWitt-Morette (again) and Quantum fields and strings by Deligne et al., see their “Sign manifesto”PDF. The latter say about their choice (notation adjusted to match):
This is a consequence of the sign rule if we assume that $\theta\mapsto\theta^*$ is a $*$-operation and $\theta$ (super)commutes with $\eta$. (A $*$-operation satisfies $(ab)^* = (-1)^{\lvert a\rvert\lvert b\rvert} b^*a^*$.) Notice that the classical statement (34) is consistent with the quantum statement (19), since the adjoint operation on linear operators is also a $*$-operation.
Eq. (34) is the definition of $(-)^*$, and (19) is the statement that quantizing complex conjugates yields Hermitian conjugates.
That is, both camps say that their choice is the one that behaves properly under quantization! What am I missing?
Edit: To add insult to injury, Rogers section 3.3 defines a conjugation similar to $(-)^\dagger$, but with an $i$ before odd terms in the reality condition; see discussion in Cook section 2.10. She also references Kleppe and Wainwright, who define what they call a “pseudo-conjugation” alongside $(-)^\dagger$ and get some interesting group theory from there—it is not involutive, though. Pellegrini, also doing group theory, compares the same “pseudo-conjugation” with $(-)^*$.